ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that the client may experience weight gain while taking fluoxetine. Weight gain is a common side effect of fluoxetine, and patients should be informed about this potential issue. Stating that the client should expect improvement in symptoms within 1 week (Choice A) is incorrect as fluoxetine may take a few weeks to have a noticeable effect. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Choice C) is not necessary since fluoxetine can be taken at any time of the day. Instructing the client to stop taking the medication if experiencing dry mouth (Choice D) is misleading, as dry mouth is a common but usually not serious side effect of fluoxetine.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). What recommendation should be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber is recommended for clients with IBS as it promotes regularity and helps reduce symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen symptoms as it is a type of sugar that can lead to gastrointestinal discomfort. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten is not recommended for individuals with IBS, especially those with gluten sensitivity, as it may trigger or worsen symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to decreased blood clotting ability. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can lead to bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is important for immunocompromised clients to prevent exposure to pathogens but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is a precaution to reduce the risk of infection in immunocompromised clients but does not directly address the complications of thrombocytopenia.
Question 5 of 9
A client with heart failure is being educated by a nurse about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Avoid drinking more than 1 liter of fluid per day." Clients with heart failure are typically advised to limit their fluid intake to around 1 liter per day to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they suggest fluid intakes that are higher than the recommended limit, which could lead to fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor. Dehydration reduces amniotic fluid and uterine blood flow, potentially leading to preterm contractions. Choice A is incorrect because dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with adequate fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by insufficient fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube is to flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevent clogging. Choice A, checking for residual feeding contents, is not the immediate action to take before administering the feeding. Choice B, administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe, is not the recommended method for administering enteral feedings. Choice D, administering the feeding at room temperature, is important but not the immediate action related to tube maintenance.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.