A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about insulin administration. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

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ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about insulin administration. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to rotate injection sites within the same region to prevent tissue damage. By rotating sites, the client can prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by the loss or change in body fat at the site of repeated injections. This practice also helps to ensure proper insulin absorption. Storing unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator (Choice A) is correct, not in the freezer, as freezing can damage the insulin. Administering insulin at a 90-degree angle (Choice C) is more appropriate for subcutaneous injections, while a 45-degree angle is used for intramuscular injections. Massaging the injection site after administering insulin (Choice D) is not recommended as it can affect insulin absorption rates.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is preparing to perform postmortem care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to perform postmortem care is to remove the client's IV lines. This step is essential to help maintain the dignity and appearance of the body. Placing the client's dentures in a labeled container (Choice A) is not a priority during postmortem care as the focus is on the body's preparation. While positioning the body in a semi-fowler's position (Choice C) or lowering the client's head of the bed (Choice D) are common practices for living clients to prevent aspiration, they are not necessary after death. Therefore, the immediate action of removing IV lines is most appropriate in this situation.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

Question 5 of 9

A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a client with a prescription for combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect thyroid hormone levels but does not directly contraindicate oral contraceptives. Diverticulosis is a condition related to the digestive system and does not impact the use of oral contraceptives. Hypocalcemia, a low calcium level in the blood, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of urinary incontinence. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dark-colored urine. Dark-colored urine can indicate various issues such as dehydration, liver problems, or blood in the urine, which could be concerning and require further evaluation by the provider. Choices A, B, and C are not necessarily findings that would need immediate reporting to the provider. A urine output of 50 mL in 2 hours might be low but could be influenced by various factors and might not always require immediate action. The presence of an indwelling urinary catheter is a known history and not a new finding. Frequent urination at night could be a symptom related to various conditions but may not be an urgent concern unless accompanied by other significant symptoms.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Facial weakness is a common finding in clients with Guillain-Barr© syndrome due to muscle weakness. While increased urine output is not typically associated with Guillain-Barr© syndrome, hyperactive reflexes are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injury. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding in Guillain-Barr© syndrome, making it an incorrect choice.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.

Question 9 of 9

A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

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