ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being discharged. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking prednisone should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to immunosuppression. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone is usually prescribed for a specific duration and not for life. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, which may not always align with symptom resolution.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Facial weakness is a common finding in clients with Guillain-Barr© syndrome due to muscle weakness. While increased urine output is not typically associated with Guillain-Barr© syndrome, hyperactive reflexes are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injury. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding in Guillain-Barr© syndrome, making it an incorrect choice.
Question 4 of 9
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take one nitroglycerin sublingual tablet every 5 minutes until the pain is relieved, up to three doses. This dosing regimen is essential for managing angina attacks effectively. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not taken with food. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature, away from moisture and heat. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin typically does not cause drowsiness as a side effect.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus due to fluid retention. Joint pain (choice A) is also common in SLE but is not specific to fluid retention. A butterfly-shaped rash on the face (choice C) is a classic symptom of SLE but is not related to fluid retention. Increased appetite (choice D) is less likely in SLE compared to weight gain.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) indicates a potential infection and should be reported to the provider. Elevated temperature postoperatively is often a sign of infection or inflammation, which can delay healing and increase the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider. Serous drainage at the incision site is expected in the initial postoperative period as part of the normal healing process, a heart rate of 92/min can be a normal response to surgery due to stress or pain, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is also within normal limits for most clients.