ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of urinary incontinence. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, dark-colored urine. Dark-colored urine can indicate various issues such as dehydration, liver problems, or blood in the urine, which could be concerning and require further evaluation by the provider. Choices A, B, and C are not necessarily findings that would need immediate reporting to the provider. A urine output of 50 mL in 2 hours might be low but could be influenced by various factors and might not always require immediate action. The presence of an indwelling urinary catheter is a known history and not a new finding. Frequent urination at night could be a symptom related to various conditions but may not be an urgent concern unless accompanied by other significant symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
A client reports intimate partner violence to a nurse. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to develop a safety plan with the client. When a client reports intimate partner violence, the priority is ensuring their immediate safety. Developing a safety plan involves identifying safe places, emergency contacts, and strategies to protect the client from harm. Referring the client to a community support group (Choice B) can be helpful but not the immediate priority. While determining if the client has any injuries (Choice C) is important for assessing their physical well-being, the priority is to ensure their safety. Ensuring the client has access to legal services (Choice D) is crucial, but it is not the immediate priority when the client is at risk of violence.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You should rinse your mouth after using this medication.' When providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed albuterol, the nurse should include the instruction to rinse the mouth after each use. This is important to prevent dry mouth and oral infections. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is usually taken during the day to manage symptoms, not at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as palpitations are not a common side effect of albuterol. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before taking albuterol.
Question 5 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing care to a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing the client with a stool softener helps prevent constipation, reduces the need for straining during bowel movements, and ultimately decreases the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect as flossing daily does not directly address the issue of bleeding risk associated with thrombocytopenia. Choice B is incorrect as removing fresh flowers from the client's room is more related to the risk of infection rather than bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding serving raw vegetables does not directly impact the risk of bleeding in clients with thrombocytopenia.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to parents of a newborn about genetic screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because avoiding public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial to reduce the risk of newborn abduction. Public announcements can attract unwanted attention and potentially jeopardize the safety of the newborn. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the baby's identification band should be kept on at all times for security purposes. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the baby unattended in the room can pose risks. Choice C is incorrect because identification bands are usually applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath.
Question 9 of 9
A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.