A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to limit IV exposure to light. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to its degradation, potentially reducing its efficacy in treating severe hypertension. Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside (Choice A) is not directly related to managing nitroprusside infusion. While monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is important in managing hypertension, it is not the immediate action required to ensure medication efficacy. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) may help filter particles but does not address the critical concern of light sensitivity associated with nitroprusside administration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You should rinse your mouth after using this medication.' When providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed albuterol, the nurse should include the instruction to rinse the mouth after each use. This is important to prevent dry mouth and oral infections. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is usually taken during the day to manage symptoms, not at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as palpitations are not a common side effect of albuterol. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before taking albuterol.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) indicates a potential infection and should be reported to the provider. Elevated temperature postoperatively is often a sign of infection or inflammation, which can delay healing and increase the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider. Serous drainage at the incision site is expected in the initial postoperative period as part of the normal healing process, a heart rate of 92/min can be a normal response to surgery due to stress or pain, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is also within normal limits for most clients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to lie down before taking the medication. Nitroglycerin can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure leading to dizziness or fainting, so taking the medication while lying down helps prevent falls. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken on an empty stomach to enhance its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as taking a double dose of nitroglycerin can lead to low blood pressure and other adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature away from light and moisture, not in the refrigerator.