ATI RN
openstax microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria are known for their ability to survive in extreme heat?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thermophiles. Thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high temperatures typically above 45°C. They have specialized enzymes and cellular structures that allow them to survive and even thrive in extreme heat. Psychrophiles (A) are adapted to cold temperatures, mesophiles (B) thrive at moderate temperatures, and halophiles (D) prefer high salt concentrations, making them unsuitable for extreme heat survival. Therefore, Thermophiles are the only bacteria among the choices that are known for their ability to survive in extreme heat.
Question 2 of 9
During fibergastroscopy a patient with ulcer disease of the stomach, the mucosal biopsy is taken from the area of an ulcer. Impression smear is prepared from biopsy material and stained by Gram method; the rest of biopsy material is tested for urease activity. Microscopy of the impression smear revealed gram- negative spiral-shaped microorganisms, urease activity test is positive. What bacteria were detected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. Rationale: 1. Gram-negative spiral-shaped microorganisms match the morphology of Helicobacter pylori. 2. Positive urease activity is a characteristic feature of Helicjsonacter pylori. 3. Helicobacter pylori is specifically associated with gastric ulcers and is a common pathogen in the gastrointestinal tract. Summary: Choice B, Campilobacter jejuni, is a gram-negative curved bacterium but is not typically associated with gastric ulcers or urease activity. Choice C, Treponema pallidum, is a spirochete bacterium causing syphilis, which is not related to gastric ulcers. Choice D, Spirilla minor, is a generic term for spiral-shaped bacteria and is not a specific pathogen associated with gastric ulcers or urease activity.
Question 3 of 9
The ability of Clostridium tetani to produce exotoxins is encoded by?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: genes with plasmid location. Clostridium tetani produces exotoxins through genes located on plasmids. Plasmids are extrachromosomal genetic elements that carry additional genes. These genes encode for the production of exotoxins in Clostridium tetani. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Clostridium tetani does produce exotoxins, it does not have only endotoxin activity, and the genes responsible for exotoxin production are located on plasmids, not solely on the chromosome or both chromosome and plasmid.
Question 4 of 9
Koch apparatus uses temperature of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (100°C) because the Koch apparatus is used for sterilization, and the standard temperature for sterilization is 100°C. At this temperature, most microorganisms are killed, making it an effective method for sterilization. Choice A (90°C), B (95°C), and D (110°C) are incorrect because they are not commonly used temperatures for sterilization purposes. Choosing a temperature lower than 100°C may not effectively kill all microorganisms, while choosing a temperature higher than 100°C may lead to unnecessary energy consumption without providing additional sterilization benefits.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following organisms belongs in the group I category?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. Group I organisms are classified based on their low infectious doses and potential for bioterrorism. H. pylori is known to cause gastric ulcers and is categorized as a Group I organism due to its ability to cause disease at low doses. A: Francisella tularensis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I. B: Clostridium difficile is not typically classified as a Group I organism. D: Bacillus anthracis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I.
Question 6 of 9
Which is NOT a property of interferon?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Interferon is a cell-specific protein that is produced and released from infected cells in response to viral infections. It acts extracellularly to interfere with viral replication, not to inactivate the virus itself. Interferon is not coded for by cellular DNA, but by viral RNA during infection. Therefore, the correct answer, D, is that interferon is not virus-specific but is cell-specific. This is because interferon can be produced by various cell types in response to different types of viral infections, making it a broad-spectrum antiviral defense mechanism.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is a type of acute infection generally caused by group A Streptococcus?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erysipelas. Erysipelas is a type of acute infection caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria. This bacteria infects the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, leading to a distinct raised, well-demarcated, erythematous skin lesion. The other choices are incorrect because: A Carbuncle is a deep skin infection involving hair follicles, B Impetigo is a superficial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, and D Acne is a chronic inflammatory skin condition not typically caused by group A Streptococcus.
Question 8 of 9
A patient diagnosed with botulism has been prescribed antibotulinic serum for treatment. What immunity will be formed in the given patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic passive immunity. Antibotulinic serum contains pre-formed antibodies against the botulinum toxin, providing immediate protection to the patient. This is passive immunity as the patient does not produce their antibodies but receives them externally. Choice B is incorrect as botulism is not an infection, so the patient does not develop infection immunity. Choice C is incorrect because active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to an antigen, which is not the case here. Choice D is incorrect as antimicrobic immunity relates to protection against microbes, not toxins like in botulism.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with the formation of dental caries?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Streptococcus mutans is known for its ability to produce lactic acid, which contributes to the demineralization of tooth enamel, leading to dental caries. Step 2: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common respiratory pathogen and not directly associated with dental caries. Step 3: Bacillus cereus is a foodborne pathogen and not typically found in the oral cavity or associated with dental caries. Step 4: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, a neurological condition, and is not involved in the formation of dental caries. Summary: Choice A is correct as Streptococcus mutans is specifically linked to dental caries due to its acidogenic and aciduric properties. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not associated with dental caries.