A client has just completed a course in radiation therapy and is experiencing radio-dermatitis. The most effective method of treating the skin is to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apply a cream or lotion to the area. This is because radio-dermatitis is a common side effect of radiation therapy, causing skin irritation and dryness. Applying a cream or lotion helps to moisturize the skin, reduce inflammation, and promote healing. Washing the area with soap can further irritate the skin. Leaving the skin alone may prolong discomfort and delay healing. Avoiding creams or lotions can worsen dryness and discomfort. Overall, applying a suitable cream or lotion is the most effective method to alleviate symptoms and support skin recovery in radio-dermatitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the most dangerous form, while basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. Sun exposure can lead to DNA damage in skin cells, increasing the risk of developing these types of cancers. Therefore, all three choices are correct as they are all linked to sun exposure. The other choices are incorrect because each type of skin cancer mentioned can be caused by prolonged sun exposure, so selecting any one of them individually would not fully capture the scope of the risks associated with sun exposure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours after a lumbar puncture to prevent complications like post-lumbar puncture headache. Lying flat helps maintain CSF pressure and reduce the risk of leakage. B: Keeping the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. C: Monitoring pedal pulses q4h is irrelevant to post-lumbar puncture care. D: Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours is not recommended after a lumbar puncture as it may increase the risk of complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is a classic sign of breast cancer. This finding is concerning as it indicates an abnormal growth that has invaded surrounding tissues. Dimpling occurs due to fibrotic changes pulling on the skin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A slight asymmetry of the breasts is common and not necessarily indicative of cancer. Bloody discharge from the nipple can be a sign of other conditions like intraductal papilloma. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle are likely benign fibrocystic changes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "It is a temporary interruption in the blood flow to the brain." This response is correct because it accurately describes a transient ischemic attack (TIA) as a temporary condition where blood flow to the brain is briefly interrupted. This explanation is clear, concise, and provides the family member with an accurate understanding of TIA. Choice A is incorrect because it deflects the question and suggests involving the doctor unnecessarily. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately states that TIA causes permanent brain damage, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect as it simply defines the acronym without providing any meaningful information about what TIA actually is.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a progressive disease affecting the central nervous system. Step 2: Axon degeneration occurs in MS, leading to impaired nerve signal transmission. Step 3: MS is characterized by sclerosed patches, or plaques, in the nervous system. Step 4: Demyelination of the brain and spinal cord is a hallmark feature of MS. Step 5: Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they accurately describe key features of MS.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenal cortex. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where the adrenal cortex produces too much aldosterone hormone, leading to hypertension. The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, not aldosterone, making option B incorrect. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, not aldosterone, making option C incorrect. Option D is incorrect because the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion in primary hyperaldosteronism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland. It is primarily used to screen for prostate cancer by measuring the levels of PSA in the blood. PSA levels can help detect prostate cancer early. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes PSA and its primary use. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Protein serum antigen is not a commonly known term in healthcare. There is no specific antigen called "protein serum antigen" used to determine protein levels. C: Pneumococcal strep antigen is a bacterial antigen that causes pneumonia, not related to PSA used in prostate cancer screening. D: Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for cervical cancer screening, not a specific antigen like PSA.