ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate after a lumbar puncture?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours after a lumbar puncture to prevent complications like post-lumbar puncture headache. Lying flat helps maintain CSF pressure and reduce the risk of leakage. B: Keeping the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. C: Monitoring pedal pulses q4h is irrelevant to post-lumbar puncture care. D: Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours is not recommended after a lumbar puncture as it may increase the risk of complications.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: In HHNS, there is severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis. Step 2: Osmotic diuresis causes loss of potassium in urine, leading to hypokalemia. Step 3: Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in HHNS due to excessive urinary loss of potassium. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a below-normal serum potassium level in a client with HHNS. Summary: A: Elevated serum acetone level is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS. B: Serum alkalosis is not typically associated with HHNS. C: Serum ketone bodies are elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a history of haemophilia A arrives in the emergency department complaining of a “funny feeling” in his elbow. The patient states that he thinks he is bleeding into the joint. Which response by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII. In a patient with hemophilia A, which is a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, bleeding into a joint can lead to serious complications. The nurse should notify the physician promptly because the patient may need factor VIII replacement therapy to stop the bleeding and prevent further damage. This is a medical emergency requiring timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Palpating the elbow could exacerbate the bleeding and cause further damage. C: Ordering an x-ray would delay the crucial factor VIII replacement therapy needed to manage the bleeding. D: Applying heat can increase blood flow to the joint, worsening the bleeding.
Question 5 of 9
Which nursing action is most appropriate for the weak patient with osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ambulate with assistance. Ambulating helps prevent further bone loss and strengthens muscles, important for osteoporosis patients. Bedrest can worsen bone density loss. Encouraging fluids and providing a high-protein diet are important for overall health but do not directly address the weakness associated with osteoporosis.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. In this scenario, the nurse identified the patient's desire to enhance urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, indicating a readiness for positive change. Health promotion diagnoses focus on improving well-being and enhancing quality of life. This diagnosis supports the patient's proactive approach to managing their condition. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This diagnosis would be used if the patient was at risk for complications related to urinary elimination, not actively seeking to improve it. B: Problem focused - This type of diagnosis would be used if the patient was experiencing issues with urinary elimination that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This diagnosis would involve identifying a problem that requires collaboration between healthcare professionals to resolve, which is not the case in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis related to enhancing the patient's urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, which focuses on promoting the patient's health and well-being. The Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination diagnosis indicates the patient's motivation and readiness to improve their urinary elimination abilities, aligning with the concept of health promotion. This type of diagnosis acknowledges the patient's potential for growth and improvement in their health status. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This choice would be more appropriate if the diagnosis focused on potential complications or adverse events related to the patient's urinary elimination abilities. B: Problem focused - This choice would be suitable if the diagnosis identified an existing issue or problem with the patient's urinary elimination abilities that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This choice would be relevant if the diagnosis required collaboration between healthcare providers to manage the patient's urinary elimination abilities effectively.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps in gathering important information and establishing rapport. Introductions are usually done at the beginning of the interview, so it is not the next step. Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes can create anxiety and hinder open communication. Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this point in the interview.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse identify as an abnormal finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse would identify platelets at 115,000/ul as an abnormal finding because it is below the normal range of 150,000-450,000/ul. Low platelet count can lead to increased bleeding risk. RBC count and hematocrit levels are within normal ranges, making them normal findings. Option D is incorrect as platelets are abnormal.