When administering azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy. When administering azoles, the priority is to educate patients and caregivers about potential side effects that could lead to injury, such as hepatotoxicity or allergic reactions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acute confusion, infection, and falls are not typically associated with azole therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic pain is often complex and challenging to treat, necessitating a multimodal approach that may include medication, physical therapy, and behavioral therapy. Choice B is incorrect because chronic pain does not always indicate that an underlying injury has not healed properly; it can persist even after the initial injury has healed. Choice C is incorrect as chronic pain management usually involves a combination of treatments rather than relying solely on a single long-term medication. Choice D is incorrect because chronic pain is not necessarily less severe than acute pain; it can vary in intensity and duration depending on the individual and underlying condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The kidneys are crucial in maintaining acid-base balance by removing hydrogen ions to decrease acidity and retaining bicarbonate ions to increase alkalinity. Choice B is incorrect because the conversion of ammonia into urea is related to nitrogen waste excretion, not acid-base balance. Choice C is incorrect as aldosterone regulates sodium levels, not acid-base balance. Choice D is also incorrect as renin is involved in regulating blood pressure, not acid-base balance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The 'fight or flight' response is a primal physiological reaction that prepares the body to respond to a perceived threat or danger. This response triggers an increase in heart rate to pump more blood to the muscles and vital organs, preparing the body for action. Choice B, 'Constricted pupils,' is part of the 'fight or flight' response as well, as it helps improve focus and vision. Choice C, 'Decreased blood pressure,' is incorrect because blood pressure typically increases to ensure adequate circulation during the 'fight or flight' response. Choice D, 'Decreased heart rate,' is incorrect as the heart rate increases to supply more oxygen and nutrients to the body during times of stress.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. This is why nurses should monitor for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues during therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures. It is crucial for nurses to prioritize cardiovascular monitoring in patients receiving testosterone therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.