ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with severe gestational hypertension is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse NOT expect to implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing respiratory status every 4 hours is not a priority for a client with severe gestational hypertension. In this scenario, the focus should be on monitoring blood pressure, assessing for signs of preeclampsia, administering medications like magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, and ensuring that calcium gluconate is readily available in case of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory status assessment is important in other conditions but is not directly related to managing severe gestational hypertension.
Question 2 of 9
A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare provider in the emergency department is caring for a client who comes to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the provider the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis indicating intra-abdominal bleeding, which can be associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign is a facial spasm related to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during early pregnancy. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix in early pregnancy.
Question 4 of 9
A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse in the antepartum unit is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following comp
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 6 of 9
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
Question 7 of 9
A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of disappointment. This empathetic approach demonstrates understanding and support for the client's emotional state, fostering a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Options B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional needs or provide appropriate support in this situation.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.
Question 9 of 9
During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.