ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.
Question 2 of 9
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a group of clients with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to the AP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Delegating the task of providing a sitz bath to a client with a fourth-degree laceration and who is 2 days postpartum to the assistive personnel (AP) is appropriate. This task involves assisting the client with personal hygiene and comfort measures that can be safely performed by the AP under the supervision and direction of the nurse. Tasks like observing redness on the breast, monitoring vital signs during admission for gestational hypertension, and changing perineal pads may require a higher level of assessment and nursing judgment, making them more appropriate for the nurse to perform.
Question 4 of 9
A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.
Question 6 of 9
A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare provider in the emergency department is caring for a client who comes to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the provider the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis indicating intra-abdominal bleeding, which can be associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign is a facial spasm related to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during early pregnancy. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix in early pregnancy.
Question 9 of 9
During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating a pregnant client for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.