ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about 3 days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, 3 days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over 50 years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative. His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending. What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and signs is acute diverticulitis. His presentation of abdominal pain, constipation, and low-grade fever, along with tenderness over the left lower quadrant, is consistent with diverticulitis, which is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can develop in the colon. The history of recent onset of symptoms after consuming popcorn, typically a high-fiber food that can exacerbate diverticulitis, further supports this diagnosis. The negative fecal occult blood test makes more acute intra-abdominal processes like acute appendicitis less likely. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain, and mesenteric ischemia typically presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, as well as signs of abdominal distress.
Question 2 of 5
A 72-year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. She is concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know her if she has this or not. Which of the following disease processes is a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CAD) is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease (PVD). CAD is a condition where plaque builds up in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. This process is called atherosclerosis. Similarly, in PVD, atherosclerosis occurs in the peripheral arteries, affecting blood flow to the extremities, most commonly the legs. Individuals with CAD often have systemic atherosclerosis, which puts them at higher risk for developing PVD. Therefore, it is important for the 72-year-old teacher with CAD to be aware of this risk factor for PVD and consider appropriate screening and preventive measures.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following pairs of ischemic symptoms versus vascular supply is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ischemic symptoms in the upper calf are indicative of peripheral artery disease affecting the tibial or peroneal arteries. These arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the lower leg and foot region, hence causing symptoms such as pain, cramping, or numbness in the upper calf area. Symptoms in the lower calf would typically be associated with more proximal arterial segments like femoral or iliac arteries. So, option D correctly matches the ischemic symptoms with the appropriate vascular supply.
Question 4 of 5
His head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. There are some crackles in the bases of each lung. During his cardiac examination there is an extra heart sound. Visualization of his penis shows an uncircumcised prepuce but no lesions or masses. Palpation of his scrotum shows generalized swelling, with no discrete masses. A gloved finger is placed through each inguinal ring, and with bearing down there are no bulges. The prostate is smooth and nontender. What abnormality of the scrotum is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scrotal edema refers to swelling of the scrotum, which can be caused by various reasons such as infection, inflammation, trauma, or fluid collection. In this case, the examination findings of generalized swelling of the scrotum with no discrete masses or bulges on palpation suggest scrotal edema as the most likely diagnosis. The absence of bulges when a finger is placed through the inguinal rings with bearing down rules out a scrotal hernia. Hydrocele typically presents as a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicle, but there are no specific findings mentioned in the scenario to suggest a hydrocele. Varicocele involves dilated veins in the scrotum and may present as a soft lump that feels like a "bag of worms," which is not described in the examination findings provided.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive transillumination test is a key finding that would lead you to suspect a hydrocele as the cause of scrotal swelling. In a hydrocele, the scrotal fluid transilluminates well, meaning that when a light is shone through the scrotum, it will appear as a fluid-filled sac with a clear glow. This is a characteristic feature of a hydrocele and helps differentiate it from other causes of scrotal swelling, such as hernias or testicular tumors. Presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum (Choice A) would be concerning for a hernia rather than a hydrocele. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass (Choice B) may suggest a large hydrocele but is not specific to diagnosing a hydrocele. The normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum (Choice D) can be found in various scrotal conditions and is not specific