ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis about preventing fractures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to perform weight-bearing exercises regularly. Weight-bearing exercises help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures in clients with osteoporosis. Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice A) is also beneficial for bone health. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) is incorrect as these exercises are essential for strengthening bones. Avoiding calcium supplements (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client's dietary intake is inadequate.
Question 4 of 9
Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.
Question 5 of 9
What is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps alleviate respiratory distress and improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen levels in the blood due to the obstruction in the pulmonary circulation caused by the embolism. Administering anticoagulants (choice B) is a treatment for confirmed pulmonary embolism rather than a suspected case. Repositioning the patient (choice C) or administering bronchodilators (choice D) would not directly address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange and oxygen delivery associated with pulmonary embolism.
Question 6 of 9
A client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of whole grains.' Whole grains are beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help promote heart health. Whole grains are high in fiber, which can help lower blood pressure. Option A is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate but not restricted to 2 liters per day. Option C is incorrect as it is recommended to have smaller, more frequent meals rather than 3 large meals to help manage hypertension. Option D is incorrect; although foods high in potassium can be beneficial for hypertension, the most appropriate dietary modification to include in this scenario is increasing whole grain intake.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness and falls if the client rises quickly from a seated position. Instructing the client to rise slowly when sitting up from bed helps prevent these adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because doxazosin does not directly relate to caloric intake, dietary fiber, or a specific time of day for administration.
Question 8 of 9
What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
Question 9 of 9
A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.