Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

Question 2 of 5

When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, the condition is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Autoimmunity is the correct term for a condition where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own tissues. Alloimmunity (Choice A) refers to an immune response against foreign tissue. Opsonization (Choice B) is a process where pathogens are marked for destruction by immune cells. Hypersensitivity (Choice D) involves an exaggerated immune response against antigens.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. As a result, when the medication is effective, the patient should experience a decrease in urinary frequency and urgency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate because finasteride aims to reduce prostate size, not increase it. Choices C and D are unrelated to the action of finasteride in treating BPH.

Question 4 of 5

A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

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