ATI RN
The Cardiovascular Pharmacology of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Zolpidem and zaleplon have effectiveness similar to that of hypnotic benzodiazepines in the management of sleep disorders.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Zolpidem and zaleplon are non-benzodiazepine hypnotics that have demonstrated similar effectiveness to benzodiazepines in managing sleep disorders. They act on the same GABA receptors as benzodiazepines, promoting sleep. This similarity in efficacy is supported by clinical trials and research studies. Incorrect choices B, C, and D are refuted as they do not align with the established evidence of the comparable effectiveness of zolpidem and zaleplon to benzodiazepines in treating sleep disorders.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone. Naloxone is a full antagonist of opioid receptors because it binds strongly to these receptors, blocking their activation by opioids. This competitive inhibition prevents opioid drugs from exerting their effects, making naloxone an effective overdose reversal agent. Meperidine (A) is a partial agonist, buprenorphine (B) is a partial agonist with mixed antagonist activity, and butorphanol (D) is a mixed agonist-antagonist. Therefore, they do not fully block opioid receptors like naloxone does.
Question 3 of 5
Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because aspirin does have an anti-inflammatory effect by inhibiting COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin synthesis. A is correct as aspirin inhibits mainly peripheral COX-1. C is correct as aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking thromboxane synthesis. D is incorrect as aspirin does not stimulate respiration but can cause respiratory alkalosis at toxic doses due to metabolic acidosis.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following agents is related to the third-generation heterocyclic antidepressants?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nefazodone. Third-generation heterocyclic antidepressants are newer antidepressants with improved side effect profiles compared to older generations. Nefazodone falls under this category due to its unique mechanism of action involving serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition. It is also known for its lower risk of causing weight gain and sexual dysfunction compared to older antidepressants. Amitriptyline (A) and Maprotiline (B) are first-generation tricyclic antidepressants, known for their anticholinergic side effects. Tranylcypromine (D) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), which is a different class of antidepressants with its own set of side effects and interactions.
Question 5 of 5
Indicate the psychostimulant,which is a methylxanthine derivative:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Caffeine. Caffeine is a methylxanthine derivative known for its psychostimulant effects on the central nervous system. Methylxanthines are a class of compounds that include caffeine, theophylline, and theobromine, all of which act as stimulants. Sydnocarb (B) is a psychostimulant but not a methylxanthine derivative. Amphetamine (C) is a different class of psychostimulant compounds, and Meridil (D) is not a psychostimulant. Therefore, caffeine is the correct choice as the methylxanthine derivative with psychostimulant properties.