ATI RN
Questions on the Respiratory System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Your client with pneumonia is being discharged today. Which of the following physical findings would lead the nurse to believe the client is appropriate for discharge. Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: SpO2 98% at rest. This indicates adequate oxygenation, a crucial aspect of recovery from pneumonia. A: Decreased tactile fremitus suggests consolidation, indicating ongoing infection. B: Increased fatigue suggests continued weakness. D: A respiratory rate of 30 breaths/minute is elevated and indicates respiratory distress, not readiness for discharge.
Question 2 of 5
Dr. Jones prescribes albuterol sulfate (Proventil) for a patient with newly diagnosed asthma. When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse should explain that it may cause:40:40H272:382:422:412:402:422:402:38
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nervousness. Albuterol sulfate is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat asthma. It works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it easier to breathe. Nervousness is a common side effect of albuterol due to its stimulant properties. Nasal congestion (Choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Lethargy (Choice C) is also not a common side effect, as albuterol typically has a stimulating effect. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is not associated with albuterol use.
Question 3 of 5
An oxygen delivery system is prescribed for a male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which of the following types of oxygen delivery systems would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Venturi mask. This type of oxygen delivery system allows for precise oxygen concentration delivery by adjusting the oxygen flow rate and selecting the appropriate color-coded adaptor. Venturi masks are commonly used in clients with COPD to ensure accurate oxygen delivery and prevent oxygen toxicity. A: Face tent provides high humidity but does not allow for precise oxygen concentration delivery. C: Aerosol mask is used for humidification and medication delivery, not for precise oxygen concentration. D: Tracheostomy collar is used for clients with a tracheostomy, not for precise oxygen concentration in COPD.
Question 4 of 5
A male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Because the client is extremely weak and can't produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atelectasis. In a client with COPD recovering from a myocardial infarction, the weakened state and ineffective cough can lead to the collapse of alveoli, causing atelectasis. This condition can further impair gas exchange and oxygenation, leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring for atelectasis is crucial to prevent complications. Pleural effusion (A) and pulmonary edema (B) are not directly related to the client's condition and symptoms. Oxygen toxicity (D) is a potential concern with high oxygen therapy but is not the most immediate risk for this client scenario.
Question 5 of 5
When the nurse reads the diagnosis of centrilobar emphysema, the nurse recognizes that this type of emphysema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because centrilobar emphysema is characterized by enlarged and broken down bronchioles with intact alveoli. This type of emphysema primarily affects the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts in the upper lung lobes. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Significant smoking history is usually present in patients with centrilobar emphysema. C) Hypoelastic bronchi and bronchioles are not characteristic of centrilobar emphysema. D) Deficiency of the enzyme inhibitor alpha-1 antitrypsin is associated with a different type of emphysema called panlobar emphysema, not centrilobar emphysema.