Your adult anaphylaxis patient is suffering from hypotension that is not responding to epinephrine. Which of the following medications is capable of combating hypotension associated with anaphylaxis when epinephrine fails to improve blood pressure?

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Chapter 67 Care of Patients with Kidney Disorders Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Your adult anaphylaxis patient is suffering from hypotension that is not responding to epinephrine. Which of the following medications is capable of combating hypotension associated with anaphylaxis when epinephrine fails to improve blood pressure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrocortisone. In anaphylaxis, hypotension can be caused by a massive release of inflammatory mediators. Hydrocortisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and stabilize blood pressure by modulating the immune response. It is often used as an adjuvant therapy in anaphylaxis when epinephrine alone is not effective. A: Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used for stomach acid-related issues, not for treating anaphylaxis-induced hypotension. B: Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for respiratory symptoms in anaphylaxis, not for hypotension. D: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator, also not used for treating anaphylaxis-induced hypotension.

Question 2 of 5

While on-scene with a 70-year-old complaining of chest pain, what is one of the first indicators that should alert the paramedic to the probability that an acute myocardial infarction is occurring?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Chest pain that is not relieved by oxygen therapy alone suggests that the cause of the pain is not related to a lack of oxygen to the heart muscle. Step 2: Acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) is caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle. Step 3: If the chest pain is not affected by oxygen therapy, it indicates that the pain is likely due to a problem other than lack of oxygen, such as a heart attack. Step 4: Therefore, choice B is the correct answer as it points to a symptom consistent with an acute myocardial infarction. Summary: Choices A and C mention relief or lack of relief of chest pain with nitroglycerin, which is typically used for angina and may not necessarily indicate a heart attack. Choice D, cyanosis, is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation and not specific to an acute myocardial infarction

Question 3 of 5

According to the American Heart Association, healthcare providers should not attempt to alter glucose concentration within a specific range because of the increased risk of hypoglycemia. What is the suggested range?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (80-110 mg/dL) because this range reflects the optimal blood glucose level to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. A (60-90 mg/dL) is too low and can lead to hypoglycemia. C (186-202 mg/dL) and D (110-160 mg/dL) are higher ranges that can increase the risk of hyperglycemia and related complications. The American Heart Association recommends the 80-110 mg/dL range for healthcare providers to maintain glucose levels within a safe and effective range.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following statements regarding injury to the central nervous system in children is TRUE?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Children suffer spinal cord injury without x-ray abnormality more commonly than adults. This statement is true because children's spinal cords are more flexible and elastic, making them less likely to show bony abnormalities on x-rays even if there is an injury. This phenomenon is known as SCIWORA (spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality) and is more common in children due to their unique anatomical characteristics. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: An infant with a traumatic brain injury may become hypotensive from cerebral edema - This statement is incorrect because hypotension is not a common consequence of cerebral edema in traumatic brain injury. C: Initial therapy for the child with traumatic brain injury includes the administration of methylprednisolone intravenously - This statement is incorrect as the use of methylprednisolone in traumatic brain injury is controversial and not considered standard therapy. D: Children have more focal mass lesions as a result of traumatic brain injury

Question 5 of 5

Systolic blood pressure starts to decrease in which class of hemorrhage?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Class 2. In Class 2 hemorrhage, systolic blood pressure starts to decrease. This is because in Class 2 hemorrhage, there is approximately 15-30% blood volume loss, which leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Class 0, 1, and 3 hemorrhages do not involve significant blood loss to cause a decrease in systolic blood pressure. Class 0 represents minimal blood loss, Class 1 involves up to 15% blood volume loss, and Class 3 involves more than 30% blood volume loss, all of which are not significant enough to lead to a decrease in systolic blood pressure.

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