Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:

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microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.

Question 2 of 9

Malaria is caused by a:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: protozoan. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. These parasites belong to the protozoa kingdom, not viruses (choice A), bacteria (choice B), or helminths (choice C). Protozoa have complex life cycles involving both mosquito and human hosts, leading to the development of malaria in humans. Other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the known etiology and characteristics of malaria.

Question 3 of 9

During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct staining technique for staining sputum smears from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses a carbol fuchsin stain that specifically stains acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The steps involved include staining with carbol fuchsin, decolorizing with acid-alcohol, counterstaining with methylene blue, and then examining under a microscope. This staining method is crucial for detecting the acid-fast bacilli characteristic of tuberculosis. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative, not suitable for acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B: Giemsa staining is used for detecting parasites and certain types of white blood cells, not specific for acid-fast bacteria. D: Burry staining is not a recognized staining technique in microbiology for staining acid-fast organisms.

Question 4 of 9

The correct descending order of taxonomic categories is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct descending order of taxonomic categories is domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species. This hierarchical classification system helps organize and categorize living organisms based on their shared characteristics and evolutionary relationships. Explanation: - Domain is the broadest category, representing the highest level of classification. - Kingdom further divides organisms into major groups based on similar characteristics. - Phylum, class, order, family, and genus successively narrow down the classification based on more specific shared characteristics. - Species is the most specific category, representing individual organisms capable of interbreeding. Summary of other choices: A: Incorrect as it has the incorrect order of phylum, kingdom, and division. B: Incorrect as it has the incorrect order of family and species. D: Incorrect as it has the incorrect order of domain, kingdom, and class.

Question 5 of 9

Which description matches most to adenoviruses:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Adenoviruses are DNA viruses, so choices B and C (ssRNA and DNA) are incorrect. 2. Adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid, making choice A the correct description. 3. Choice D is incorrect as adenoviruses do have specific characteristics, making "None of the above" an inaccurate option. In summary, the correct answer A is supported by the fact that adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid and contain double-stranded DNA. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the characteristics of adenoviruses.

Question 6 of 9

The cleaning of glassware and tableware in restaurants falls into the category of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: sanitization. Sanitization is the process of reducing the number of microorganisms on surfaces to a safe level. In restaurants, cleaning glassware and tableware aims to eliminate harmful bacteria to prevent foodborne illnesses. Degermation (A) focuses on removing germs from a specific area, sterilization (B) eliminates all microorganisms, and disinfection (C) reduces the number of pathogens but may not completely eliminate them, making them less effective choices for this context.

Question 7 of 9

For the structure of rubella virus, it is true that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.

Question 8 of 9

Which bacterium is known for producing an exotoxin that causes severe diarrhea?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. 2. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not diarrhea. 3. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not diarrhea. 4. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not typical diarrhea. Summary: A: Incorrect, causes tetanus. B: Incorrect, causes botulism. C: Correct, produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. D: Incorrect, causes dysentery.

Question 9 of 9

Vaginal infections that are resulting from an overgrowth of normal flora are called:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: endogenous infections. This term refers to infections caused by microorganisms that are normally present in or on the body. In the context of vaginal infections, an overgrowth of the normal flora can lead to an imbalance and result in infection. Choice B, chronic infections, does not specifically address the source of the infection. Choice C, iatrogenic infections, refers to infections caused by medical intervention, not normal flora overgrowth. Choice D, fatal infections, is incorrect as it does not describe the nature or source of the infection. In summary, the term "endogenous infections" accurately describes the scenario of vaginal infections caused by an overgrowth of normal flora.

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