You have arrived by the side of a cyanotic patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and exhibiting stridorous respirations. Which of the following would be most appropriate?

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Question 1 of 9

You have arrived by the side of a cyanotic patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and exhibiting stridorous respirations. Which of the following would be most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen. This is the most appropriate action as the patient is cyanotic, responsive to painful stimuli, and exhibiting stridorous respirations, indicating potential airway compromise. Providing positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen can help improve oxygenation and support the patient's breathing. Summary of other choices: B: Obtaining vital signs is important, but in this urgent situation, addressing the airway and breathing takes precedence. C: Contacting medical direction may delay essential treatment. Immediate intervention is crucial in this scenario. D: Applying a pulse oximeter can provide valuable information, but administering oxygen and ensuring adequate ventilation should be the priority in a patient with compromised breathing.

Question 2 of 9

Treatment for early PD in an otherwise healthy older patient without significant functional impairment should begin with:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dopamine agonist. In early PD, dopamine agonists are preferred due to their lower risk of motor complications compared to levodopa. Dopamine agonists help improve motor symptoms by directly stimulating dopamine receptors. COMT inhibitors are usually used in combination with levodopa to prolong its effects. Levodopa is effective but can lead to motor complications with long-term use. Careful observation is not a treatment strategy and delays symptom management. Therefore, starting with a dopamine agonist is the most suitable option for early PD to manage symptoms effectively with minimal risk of motor complications.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following is true of the HPV vaccine?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: It can protect against anogenital lesions. The HPV vaccine can protect against several types of HPV that are known to cause anogenital warts and lesions. This is based on scientific evidence from clinical trials. A: Ideally it should be administered within 3 years of first intercourse - This statement is not accurate. The HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26, regardless of sexual activity. B: It covers against almost every HPV type - This statement is incorrect. While the HPV vaccine covers the most common high-risk HPV types that cause cervical cancer, it does not cover against every HPV type. C: It can be used as adjuvant therapy in cervical cancer - This statement is incorrect. The HPV vaccine is primarily used as a preventive measure to reduce the risk of HPV infection and related health issues, not as a treatment for existing cervical cancer.

Question 4 of 9

A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which symptom would most likely indicate the need for further evaluation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.

Question 5 of 9

A 78-year-old man with multi-infarct dementia, chronic kidney disease, congestive heart failure, and uncontrolled hypertension develops confusion, restlessness, and combativeness. Which of the pharmacologic agents would be the best choice for treating the agitation associated with his delirium?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-line antipsychotic commonly used to manage agitation in delirium due to its rapid onset and minimal sedative effects. It acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to reduce agitation and combativeness. Melatonin (A) is not effective for acute agitation. Diazepam (C) can worsen confusion in elderly patients and is not recommended for delirium. Gabapentin (D) is not indicated for managing agitation in delirium and may not be effective in this scenario.

Question 6 of 9

A patient who is taking an oral glucocorticosteroid should be advised to

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take it with food. Glucocorticosteroids can irritate the stomach lining, leading to gastritis or ulcers. Taking them with food helps reduce stomach irritation and the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Crushing it in applesauce (A) or chewing it prior to a high-fat meal (B) can exacerbate stomach irritation. Taking it on an empty stomach (C) can increase the risk of stomach upset and decrease absorption. Therefore, taking it with food (D) is the best option to minimize stomach irritation and improve medication effectiveness.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with pain in the shoulder. The nurse practitioner knows that there are four rotator cuff muscles. The muscle that initiates abduction movement at the shoulder is known as the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Supraspinatus. This muscle is responsible for initiating abduction movement at the shoulder joint. It is located on the top of the shoulder blade and assists in lifting the arm away from the body. The other choices, B: Infraspinatus, C: Levator scapulae muscle, and D: Subscapularis, are not involved in initiating abduction movement at the shoulder. Infraspinatus is responsible for external rotation, Levator scapulae muscle elevates the scapula, and Subscapularis assists in internal rotation of the shoulder joint.

Question 8 of 9

An 85-year-old man with newly diagnosed nonvalvular atrial fibrillation comes to the office for a follow-up. Which medication change would be most appropriate for reducing his stroke risk?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop aspirin and begin apixaban 5 mg twice a day. The rationale is that for stroke risk reduction in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation therapy with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban is preferred over antiplatelet therapy like aspirin. DOACs have been shown to be more effective in reducing stroke risk with a lower bleeding risk compared to warfarin. Choice A is incorrect as aspirin alone is not sufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Choice B is incorrect as warfarin has more monitoring requirements and potential drug interactions compared to DOACs like apixaban. Choice D is incorrect as aspirin and apixaban together are not recommended due to increased bleeding risk.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.

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