ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
You feel a small mass that you think is a lymph node. It is mobile in both the up-and- down and side-to-side directions. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lymph node. A mobile mass that is palpable and moves in multiple directions is characteristic of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are part of the immune system and can move freely when touched. Incorrect choices: A: Cancer - A cancerous mass would typically be fixed and not mobile. C: Deep scar - Scars are usually fixed and do not move when touched. D: Muscle - Muscles are usually deeper in the body and not typically palpable as a mobile mass.
Question 2 of 9
Mrs. Gloth is an 84-year-old woman whom you are admitting to the nursing home. Her son takes you aside and tells you that she has metastatic ovarian cancer but has not been told the diagnosis. He asks that you not tell her, because she would “lose all hope and die.” Which of the following is an appropriate response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Suggest that you discuss this further after getting to know the patient and family a little better. This response allows the healthcare provider to gather more information about the patient's beliefs, values, and preferences before making a decision. It demonstrates respect for the autonomy of the patient and involves a collaborative approach with the family. It also allows time to assess the patient's emotional and psychological readiness to receive the diagnosis. Incorrect answers: A: This answer disregards the patient's autonomy and does not consider the emotional impact of delivering such news without proper assessment. B: While respecting the son's wishes is important, prioritizing the patient's well-being and autonomy should come first. D: Relying solely on the family's perspective without considering the patient's own wishes and understanding may lead to ethical issues and potential harm to the patient.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for an older adult who is having difficulty with swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide thickened liquids and soft foods. This intervention helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of food or liquids entering the airway. Thickened liquids are easier to control while swallowing, decreasing the chance of aspiration. Soft foods are also easier to chew and swallow, further reducing the risk. Choice A is incorrect because eating quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after meals can actually increase the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect as large meals can increase the likelihood of swallowing difficulties and aspiration.
Question 4 of 9
Which area of the fundus is the central focal point for incoming images?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The fovea. The fovea is the central focal point for incoming images because it contains a high concentration of cones, which are responsible for detailed central vision. Cones are essential for color vision and visual acuity. The macula, while important for central vision, refers to the area surrounding the fovea. The optic disk is where the optic nerve exits the eye, and it does not receive incoming images. The physiologic cup is a normal depression in the optic nerve head and is not involved in image reception. In conclusion, the fovea is the correct answer as it is the area with the highest visual acuity due to the dense concentration of cones.
Question 5 of 9
An 86-year-old man with no ADL deficits who has stopped driving because of macular degeneration is evaluated for a urinary tract infection associated with urinary retention. The consulting urologist places a Foley catheter and sends a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level that comes back 12 ng/mL. Three months later after the Foley has been removed and he has had a good response to tamsulosin, his PSA is still 10 ng/mL. What is the appropriate next step in managing this man’s prostate problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Repeat PSA in 6 months. In this case, the patient's PSA levels have decreased from 12 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL after treatment with tamsulosin and removal of the Foley catheter. Given the improvement in PSA levels, it is reasonable to monitor for further changes before considering invasive procedures like transrectal ultrasound and biopsy (choice A), which may not be necessary at this time. Empiric finasteride (choice B) is not indicated as the patient is already responding well to tamsulosin. A bone scan (choice C) is not necessary at this stage as there are no indications of metastasis. Therefore, repeating the PSA in 6 months allows for continued monitoring of the patient's prostate health without subjecting him to unnecessary procedures.
Question 6 of 9
You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry and rough. In hypothyroidism, there is reduced secretion of sweat and oils, leading to dry skin. The lack of hydration causes the skin to become rough. This correlates with the clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss, which are common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because moisture is reduced in hypothyroidism, resulting in dry skin. Choice C is incorrect because the lack of oils in hypothyroidism leads to rough skin texture, not smooth.
Question 7 of 9
Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are associated with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.
Question 8 of 9
Hyperkalemia is associated with
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is associated with diminished renal function because the kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. When renal function is impaired, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. - Choice A (Increase BP) is incorrect because hyperkalemia is not directly associated with increased blood pressure. - Choice B (Alpha-blockers) is incorrect as alpha-blockers are not typically linked to hyperkalemia. - Choice D (Loop diuretics) is incorrect as loop diuretics can actually lower potassium levels, not cause hyperkalemia.
Question 9 of 9
Which is true of the pectinate or dentate line?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pectinate or dentate line is the border between the anal canal and the rectum. This is true because it represents the transition between the endoderm-derived upper anal canal and the ectoderm-derived lower anal canal. It is an important anatomical landmark in colorectal surgery and in distinguishing different pathologies in the anal region. Choice A is incorrect because the pectinate or dentate line is not typically palpable. Choice B is incorrect as it does not demarcate areas supplied by different nervous systems. Choice D is incorrect as the pectinate or dentate line is visible on proctoscopic examination due to its distinct appearance.