You are working in a college health clinic and seeing a young woman with a red, painful, swollen DIP joint on the left index finger. There are also a few papules, pustules, and vesicles on reddened bases, located on the distal extremities. This would be consistent with which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The description provided indicates a presentation consistent with gonococcal arthritis. Gonococcal arthritis is an infectious arthritis caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Symptoms typically include red, swollen, and painful joints, especially affecting the distal joints of the limbs. The presence of papules, pustules, and vesicles on reddened bases at the distal extremities is characteristic of disseminated gonococcal infection. In women, the DIP joint involvement in the finger can be indicative of this condition. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics are essential to prevent complications associated with gonococcal arthritis. It is important to consider a sexually transmitted infection like gonorrhea in young patients presenting with joint symptoms and cutaneous findings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Venous insufficiency is the most likely etiology for the painful ulcerative lesion near the medial malleolus with accompanying hyperpigmentation. Venous insufficiency can lead to the development of venous stasis ulcers, which typically occur on the lower extremities, especially around the ankle area. These ulcers are often painful and associated with swelling, hyperpigmentation, and a weeping or moist wound bed. The location of the ulcer near the medial malleolus is also characteristic of venous insufficiency-related ulcers. Arterial insufficiency would typically present with different clinical findings, such as a pale, cool extremity, decreased pulses, and hair loss. Neuropathic ulcers are usually painless due to the loss of sensation, and trauma would have a different appearance than the described findings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described, including decreased air movement, high-pitched whistling (wheezing) on expiration in all lobes, and resonant lungs on percussion, are characteristic findings of asthma. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucus production, leading to symptoms like wheezing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and cough. The presence of wheezing, particularly on expiration, is a classic sign of asthma. In contrast, spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath, accompanied by hyperresonant percussion notes due to trapped air in the pleural space. COPD, a chronic lung condition characterized by progressive airflow limitation, would often present with symptoms such as chronic cough, sputum production, and dyspnea on exertion. Pneumonia is an infection of the lung tissue,

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of visual acuity, the numbers in the ratio 20/100 represent a comparison between the patient's vision and normal vision. Specifically, a visual acuity of 20/100 means that the patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 100 feet. This indicates that the patient's vision is reduced, as she needs to be closer to see the same level of detail compared to someone with normal vision.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The closed fist gesture over the sternum to describe chest pain is a typical characteristic of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen-rich blood. The gesture of clenching a fist over the sternum is often used to describe the tight, squeezing, or pressure-like discomfort experienced with angina. This type of chest pain is typically triggered by physical or emotional stress and is relieved by rest or medications like nitroglycerin. Considering the patient's age, smoking history, and the description of the chest pain gesture, angina pectoris should be a top consideration in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The description of dark, granular material resembling coffee grounds in the vomitus suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding. One common cause of upper GI bleeding is a peptic ulcer, which can present with symptoms such as vomiting blood or coffee ground material. Peptic ulcers can develop in the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum). Risk factors for peptic ulcers include infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, and alcohol consumption. Prompt evaluation and management are necessary in cases of upper GI bleeding to address the underlying cause and prevent complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body is in a state of metabolic acidosis due to the accumulation of ketones in the blood. One of the compensatory mechanisms to decrease the acidity in the body is increased breathing, known as Kussmaul breathing. This type of breathing is characterized by a rapid and deep pattern to blow off excess carbon dioxide and decrease the acidity of the blood. Therefore, in a patient with DKA, you would expect to observe rapid and deep breathing.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presence of a palpable pulsatile abdominal mass in a patient like Mr. Martin, who is a smoker and at risk for vascular diseases, is concerning for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Immediate referral to a vascular surgeon is essential for further evaluation and management. AAA can be a life-threatening condition if left untreated, as it can lead to rupture and severe internal bleeding. Therefore, prompt specialist evaluation and monitoring are crucial in such cases. Waiting for 3 or 6 months for reevaluation could potentially lead to a delayed diagnosis and increase the risk of complications. Abdominal ultrasound is typically the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the presence and size of the aneurysm.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A subconjunctival hemorrhage is a common and benign condition characterized by blood in the space between the conjunctiva and sclera of the eye. The condition often presents as a painless, sharply demarcated area of redness on the white part of the eye, typically without associated discharge or visual disturbances. In this case, the absence of eye pain, discharge, visual disturbances, and clear cornea make subconjunctival hemorrhage the most likely diagnosis. The history of forceful coughing with a recent cold is also consistent with the increased intraocular pressure leading to a rupture of a small blood vessel, resulting in the hemorrhage. Treatment is not usually required as the condition is self-limiting and resolves on its own over time.