You are treating a female patient whose chief complaint is lower abdominal pain and are now taking the SAMPLE history. Which question is BEST for determining the patient's last oral intake?

Questions 53

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

physical assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

You are treating a female patient whose chief complaint is lower abdominal pain and are now taking the SAMPLE history. Which question is BEST for determining the patient's last oral intake?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pharmacology and healthcare, obtaining an accurate patient history is crucial for determining appropriate treatment plans. When assessing a patient with lower abdominal pain, it is essential to inquire about their last oral intake to understand the potential causes of their symptoms and to assess for possible complications like surgery. Option D, "When was the last time you had anything to eat or drink?" is the best question because it provides a comprehensive understanding of the patient's recent oral intake, including both food and liquids. This information is vital for assessing the patient's current condition and planning for any necessary interventions. Option A, "Have you had any snacks since lunch?" is not the best choice as it focuses only on snacks and does not provide a clear timeline for the patient's last intake, which may lead to an incomplete picture of their nutritional status. Option B, "When did you have dinner?" is also not the optimal question as it only addresses the timing of one meal and may not capture any subsequent intake that could be relevant to the patient's current condition. Option C, "What time was breakfast this morning?" is not the most appropriate question as it focuses on a meal that may have occurred several hours ago and may not reflect the patient's most recent intake, especially if they have had other meals or snacks since breakfast. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of asking specific and relevant questions during a patient assessment to gather accurate information for clinical decision-making. It emphasizes the need for healthcare providers to obtain a detailed history to ensure thorough patient care and proper treatment.

Question 2 of 5

Explain the significance of displacing the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle during a thyroid examination.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a thyroid examination, displacing the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle is significant because it facilitates the palpation of the thyroid lobes by providing better access. The SCM muscle overlays the thyroid gland, and moving it laterally allows the examiner to reach and palpate the thyroid more effectively. This action helps in detecting any abnormalities or changes in the thyroid gland's size, shape, or consistency. Option A, stabilizing the neck for better palpation, is not as accurate as the SCM displacement specifically targets improving access to the thyroid gland. Option B, a clearer view of the thyroid gland, is not entirely accurate as the primary benefit is improved palpation access rather than visual clarity. Option D, preventing patient discomfort, is not the primary reason for displacing the SCM muscle during a thyroid examination. In an educational context, understanding the anatomy and the techniques involved in a thyroid examination is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those in fields like nursing, medicine, or allied health. Proper technique ensures a thorough and accurate assessment, leading to timely diagnosis and appropriate management of thyroid conditions.

Question 3 of 5

What is the primary cause of hypovolemic shock?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The primary cause of hypovolemic shock is option B) Blood loss. In hypovolemic shock, there is a significant decrease in blood volume leading to inadequate perfusion of tissues. Blood loss can result from various factors such as trauma, hemorrhage, or surgery. Option A) Severe burns can lead to hypovolemic shock, but the primary cause is fluid loss due to damaged blood vessels rather than the burns themselves. Option C) Heart failure typically causes cardiogenic shock, not hypovolemic shock. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively leading to poor tissue perfusion. Option D) Sepsis can lead to distributive shock, not hypovolemic shock. In septic shock, there is widespread vasodilation and leakage of fluid from blood vessels, but the primary mechanism is different from hypovolemic shock. Understanding the primary causes of hypovolemic shock is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize and manage this life-threatening condition promptly. It is essential for pharmacology students to grasp these concepts to make informed decisions regarding fluid replacement therapy and other interventions in clinical practice.

Question 4 of 5

An older client with heart failure presents with weight gain and edema. Which nursing intervention should be prioritized?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct nursing intervention to prioritize is option D: Weigh the client daily. This is essential in managing a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and edema because sudden weight changes can indicate fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Daily weight monitoring allows for early detection of fluid retention, guiding treatment adjustments promptly. Option A, monitoring the client’s blood pressure, is important in managing heart failure but may not be the priority in this situation where weight gain and edema are the presenting symptoms. Option B, encouraging fluid intake, would not be appropriate as excess fluid retention is likely contributing to the client's symptoms. Option C, assessing the client’s respiratory status, is important but would not take precedence over monitoring weight in this case. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind prioritizing interventions helps nurses provide effective and timely care to clients with heart failure. By recognizing the significance of daily weight monitoring in detecting fluid retention early, nurses can improve client outcomes and prevent complications associated with heart failure exacerbations.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is assessing a 72-year-old client with shortness of breath and fatigue. Which condition is most likely based on the client's history?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a progressive lung disease common in older adults, characterized by symptoms like shortness of breath and fatigue. Asthma (A) typically presents with wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness, more common in younger individuals. Pneumonia (C) often presents with fever, productive cough, and chest pain, which are not mentioned in the client's history. Acute bronchitis (D) is characterized by a productive cough and typically follows a viral infection. Educationally, understanding the differences in symptoms and characteristics of respiratory conditions is crucial for nurses to accurately assess and manage patients. By knowing the hallmark features of each condition, nurses can provide appropriate care, educate patients on self-management, and collaborate effectively with the healthcare team to optimize patient outcomes. This question reinforces the importance of clinical reasoning and knowledge application in pharmacology and physical assessment.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions