You are the nurse-manager in the burn unit. Which client is best assigned to an RN who has floated from the oncology unit?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, assigning the RN who has floated from the oncology unit to the 57-year-old client with full-thickness burns on both arms needing assistance in positioning hand splints (Option D) is the best choice. This assignment aligns with the RN's experience in oncology, where they would have developed skills in wound care, patient positioning, and potentially working with splints or orthopedic devices. This client requires specialized care and positioning skills due to the nature of their full-thickness burns and the need for hand splints. Option A is not the best choice because the 23-year-old with burns over 30% of the body requires intensive care and monitoring, which may be beyond the expertise of a nurse from the oncology unit. Option B involves discharge teaching, which is more suitable for a nurse with experience in wound care and patient education, not necessarily oncology. Option C, with an infected partial-thickness burn and a dressing change scheduled, also requires specific wound care skills that may not align with the oncology nurse's expertise. Educationally, this rationale highlights the importance of matching nursing staff skills and expertise to the needs of individual patients, especially in specialized units like burn care. It underscores the significance of considering the complexity of patient conditions and the required nursing interventions when making patient assignments to ensure optimal care delivery.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Exposure to ultraviolet light stimulates the production of melanin. Melanin is a pigment produced by melanocytes in the skin in response to UV exposure. This is a protective mechanism to absorb and dissipate UV radiation, thereby reducing potential DNA damage. Option A) Exposure to a cloudy environment does not directly stimulate melanin production as UV rays are still present even on cloudy days. Option C) Exposure to air pollutants does not have a direct impact on melanin production. Option D) Exposure to warm temperatures is not a factor in melanin production. Educationally, understanding factors that influence melanin production is crucial for students studying the integumentary system. It highlights the body's adaptive responses to environmental stimuli and the importance of melanin in protecting the skin from UV damage. This knowledge is not only relevant in dermatology but also in understanding the broader concept of how the body maintains homeostasis in response to external factors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Dehydration. Dehydration is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it can lead to reduced blood flow to the skin, making it more susceptible to damage and slower wound healing. In a client with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and immobility, dehydration is a common occurrence due to fluid loss and decreased intake. Proper hydration is crucial for maintaining skin integrity and preventing pressure ulcers. Option B) Hypokalemia is not directly linked to pressure ulcer development. While electrolyte imbalances can impact overall health, they do not have a direct correlation to skin breakdown. Option C) Hypernatremia, an excess of sodium in the blood, is not a common risk factor for pressure ulcers. It is more related to fluid balance and can lead to dehydration, which is a risk factor for pressure ulcers. Option D) Fluid overload is also not a typical risk factor for pressure ulcers. While excessive fluid retention can cause swelling and affect circulation, leading to other health issues, it is not a primary risk factor for pressure ulcer development. Educationally, understanding the relationship between hydration status and pressure ulcer risk is crucial for healthcare professionals caring for immobile patients. By recognizing dehydration as a risk factor, healthcare providers can implement preventive measures such as regular skin assessments, repositioning schedules, and adequate hydration protocols to reduce the incidence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer to the question is B) It should take up to 4 months for healing at the site of the navel. This answer is correct because body piercings, especially in areas like the navel which have limited blood supply, typically take a longer time to heal compared to other areas. The navel area is prone to movement and friction which can prolong the healing process. Option A) It should take up to 8 weeks for healing at the site of the navel is incorrect because healing in the navel area typically takes longer due to its location and limited blood flow. Option C) It should take up to 9 months for healing at the site of the navel is incorrect as this is an excessive amount of time for a navel piercing to heal under normal circumstances. Option D) It should take up to 2 weeks for healing at the site of the navel is incorrect as healing a navel piercing in just 2 weeks is unrealistic and does not align with the typical healing process for body piercings. In an educational context, understanding the healing times associated with body piercings is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide accurate information to patients. Educating patients on proper piercing aftercare and expected healing times can help prevent complications and ensure successful healing of the piercing site.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, fat, fascia, muscle, and bone. In a fourth-degree burn, all layers of the skin (epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue) are destroyed, extending to deeper tissues like fat, fascia, muscle, and even bone. This level of tissue involvement results in significant damage and potential complications like tissue necrosis and loss of function. Option A (Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue) describes a third-degree burn, not a fourth-degree burn. Option B (Deeper layer of the dermis with damage to sweat and sebaceous glands) is more characteristic of a second-degree burn. Option D (Epidermis and dermis, hair follicles intact) is indicative of a first-degree burn, where only the superficial layers of the skin are affected. Understanding the depth of burns is crucial in healthcare, as it guides treatment decisions, predicts outcomes, and influences patient management. Educating healthcare professionals on burn classifications helps them provide appropriate care, prevent complications, and promote optimal healing for patients with burn injuries.