You are running late after your quarterly quality improvement meeting at the hospital and have just gotten paged from the nurses' station because a family member of one of your patients wants to talk with you about that patient's care. You have clinic this afternoon and are double- booked for the first appointment time; three other patients also have arrived and are sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following demeanors is a behavior consistent with skilled interviewing when you walk into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient?

Questions 28

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 9

You are running late after your quarterly quality improvement meeting at the hospital and have just gotten paged from the nurses' station because a family member of one of your patients wants to talk with you about that patient's care. You have clinic this afternoon and are double- booked for the first appointment time; three other patients also have arrived and are sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following demeanors is a behavior consistent with skilled interviewing when you walk into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is important to maintain a calm demeanor when walking into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient, especially in a busy and high-pressure situation. Demonstrating calmness will help to build rapport with the patient, create a sense of trust, and promote effective communication. This demeanor will also convey professionalism and confidence, which are essential qualities for a healthcare provider. Displaying irritability, impatience, or boredom can negatively impact the patient-provider relationship and hinder effective communication, potentially compromising the quality of care provided.

Question 2 of 9

A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.

Question 3 of 9

Phil comes to your office with left "shoulder pain." You find that the pain is markedly worse when his left arm is drawn across his chest (adduction). Which of the following would you suspect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of pain that is markedly worse when the left arm is drawn across the chest (adduction) is characteristic of a rotator cuff tear. This is because when the arm is adducted, it puts stress on the torn rotator cuff tendons, causing pain. In contrast, subacromial bursitis typically presents with pain during overhead movements, acromioclavicular joint involvement may present with pain localized to the joint itself, and adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) typically presents with pain and stiffness that worsens with all movements.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following pairs of ischemic symptoms versus vascular supply is correct?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Ischemic symptoms in the upper calf are indicative of peripheral artery disease affecting the tibial or peroneal arteries. These arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the lower leg and foot region, hence causing symptoms such as pain, cramping, or numbness in the upper calf area. Symptoms in the lower calf would typically be associated with more proximal arterial segments like femoral or iliac arteries. So, option D correctly matches the ischemic symptoms with the appropriate vascular supply.

Question 5 of 9

Mr. Patel is a 64-year-old man who was told by another care provider that his liver is enlarged. Although he is a life-long smoker, he has never used drugs or alcohol and has no knowledge of liver disease. Indeed, on examination, a liver edge is palpable 4 centimeters below the costal arch. Which of the following would you do next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Mr. Patel's case involves an enlarged liver, which warrants further investigation to determine the underlying cause. An ultrasound of the liver would provide valuable information regarding the size, shape, and texture of the liver, helping to identify any potential abnormalities such as liver cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, or liver tumors. This imaging study can also help differentiate between different conditions that may be causing the liver enlargement, guiding subsequent diagnostic and treatment decisions. Therefore, obtaining an ultrasound of the liver is the most appropriate next step in evaluating Mr. Patel's condition.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A positive transillumination test is a key finding that would lead you to suspect a hydrocele as the cause of scrotal swelling. In a hydrocele, the scrotal fluid transilluminates well, meaning that when a light is shone through the scrotum, it will appear as a fluid-filled sac with a clear glow. This is a characteristic feature of a hydrocele and helps differentiate it from other causes of scrotal swelling, such as hernias or testicular tumors. Presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum (Choice A) would be concerning for a hernia rather than a hydrocele. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass (Choice B) may suggest a large hydrocele but is not specific to diagnosing a hydrocele. The normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum (Choice D) can be found in various scrotal conditions and is not specific

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is a symptom involving the eye?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Scotomas refer to areas of partial alteration in the field of vision. These blind spots can be caused by various eye conditions such as glaucoma, retinal detachment, or optic nerve damage. Symptoms involving the eye like scotomas are important to recognize and address promptly to prevent potential vision loss or other complications. Tinnitus (choice B) refers to ringing in the ears, dysphagia (choice C) refers to difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea (choice D) refers to a runny nose, none of which are symptoms involving the eye.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with hearing loss by whisper test is further examined with a tuning fork, using the Weber and Rinne maneuvers. The abnormal results are as follows: bone conduction is greater than air on the left, and the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better on the left. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, specifically around the stapes bone. In cases of otosclerosis, the bone conduction is greater than air conduction on the affected side, which is seen in the scenario described. The Weber test localizes to the affected ear, meaning the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better in the left ear in this case. This is because the abnormal bone growth can restrict the movement of the ossicles, leading to a conductive hearing loss. Otosclerosis typically affects one ear, and its presentation aligns with the results of the hearing tests performed in this case.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following lymph node groups is most commonly involved in breast cancer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The pectoral lymph node group, also known as the Level III lymph nodes, is the most commonly involved in breast cancer metastasis. These lymph nodes are located along the lower border of the pectoralis minor muscle and are an important regional drainage site for breast tissue. Therefore, in cases of breast cancer, the pectoral lymph nodes are frequently affected due to their proximity to the breast tissue.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days