You are running late after your quarterly quality improvement meeting at the hospital and have just gotten paged from the nurses' station because a family member of one of your patients wants to talk with you about that patient's care. You have clinic this afternoon and are double- booked for the first appointment time; three other patients also have arrived and are sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following demeanors is a behavior consistent with skilled interviewing when you walk into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient?

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Question 1 of 9

You are running late after your quarterly quality improvement meeting at the hospital and have just gotten paged from the nurses' station because a family member of one of your patients wants to talk with you about that patient's care. You have clinic this afternoon and are double- booked for the first appointment time; three other patients also have arrived and are sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following demeanors is a behavior consistent with skilled interviewing when you walk into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is important to maintain a calm demeanor when walking into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient, especially in a busy and high-pressure situation. Demonstrating calmness will help to build rapport with the patient, create a sense of trust, and promote effective communication. This demeanor will also convey professionalism and confidence, which are essential qualities for a healthcare provider. Displaying irritability, impatience, or boredom can negatively impact the patient-provider relationship and hinder effective communication, potentially compromising the quality of care provided.

Question 2 of 9

Mr. Patel is a 64-year-old man who was told by another care provider that his liver is enlarged. Although he is a life-long smoker, he has never used drugs or alcohol and has no knowledge of liver disease. Indeed, on examination, a liver edge is palpable 4 centimeters below the costal arch. Which of the following would you do next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Mr. Patel's case involves an enlarged liver, which warrants further investigation to determine the underlying cause. An ultrasound of the liver would provide valuable information regarding the size, shape, and texture of the liver, helping to identify any potential abnormalities such as liver cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, or liver tumors. This imaging study can also help differentiate between different conditions that may be causing the liver enlargement, guiding subsequent diagnostic and treatment decisions. Therefore, obtaining an ultrasound of the liver is the most appropriate next step in evaluating Mr. Patel's condition.

Question 3 of 9

His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His lungs have normal breath sounds and there are no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest. His heart has a normal S and S and no S or S . Further workup is pending. 1 2 3 4 Which disorder of the chest best describes these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario point towards pleural pain. The examination findings of normal breath sounds, no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest, and a normal heart sound (S1 and S2) suggest that the issue is more likely related to the pleura rather than the heart or major blood vessels. Pleural pain is typically sharp and worsens with deep breathing or coughing. This differs from angina pectoris, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscles due to coronary artery disease. Pericarditis involves inflammation of the pericardium, the membrane surrounding the heart, and usually presents with chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward. Dissecting aortic aneurysm is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe, tearing chest pain that can radiate to the back. In this case, the lack of significant abnormalities on cardiac and vascular examination points towards ple

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A positive transillumination test is a key finding that would lead you to suspect a hydrocele as the cause of scrotal swelling. In a hydrocele, the scrotal fluid transilluminates well, meaning that when a light is shone through the scrotum, it will appear as a fluid-filled sac with a clear glow. This is a characteristic feature of a hydrocele and helps differentiate it from other causes of scrotal swelling, such as hernias or testicular tumors. Presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum (Choice A) would be concerning for a hernia rather than a hydrocele. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass (Choice B) may suggest a large hydrocele but is not specific to diagnosing a hydrocele. The normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum (Choice D) can be found in various scrotal conditions and is not specific

Question 5 of 9

A 67-year-old retired janitor comes to the clinic with his wife. She brought him in because she is concerned about his weight loss. He has a history of smoking 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years, for a total of 90 pack-years. He has noticed a daily cough for the past several years, which he states is productive of sputum. He came into the clinic approximately 1 year ago, and at that time his weight was 140 pounds. Today, his weight is 110 pounds. Which one of the following questions would be the most important to ask if you suspect that he has lung cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most important question to ask in this scenario would be if the patient has tried to lose weight. Given the patient's significant unintentional weight loss (from 140 to 110 pounds in a year), especially in the context of a chronic cough and a long history of smoking, lung cancer becomes a top concern. Unintentional weight loss is a common symptom seen in patients with lung cancer. Therefore, understanding if the weight loss was intentional or unintentional can provide crucial information in the diagnostic evaluation for possible lung cancer.

Question 6 of 9

A mother brings her 11 month old to you because her mother-in-law and others have told her that her baby is jaundiced. She is eating and growing well and performing the developmental milestones she should for her age. On examination you indeed notice a yellow tone to her skin from head to toe. Her sclerae are white. To which area should your next questions be related?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Since the baby is exhibiting jaundice, which is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin, it is important to inquire about the family history of liver diseases. Jaundice can be a sign of liver dysfunction or disease, so understanding the family history of liver diseases can provide valuable insights into potential underlying causes for the baby's jaundice. In this case, it is crucial to explore this area further to determine if there may be any genetic predispositions or familial conditions that could be contributing to the baby's presentation of jaundice.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with hearing loss by whisper test is further examined with a tuning fork, using the Weber and Rinne maneuvers. The abnormal results are as follows: bone conduction is greater than air on the left, and the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better on the left. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, specifically around the stapes bone. In cases of otosclerosis, the bone conduction is greater than air conduction on the affected side, which is seen in the scenario described. The Weber test localizes to the affected ear, meaning the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better in the left ear in this case. This is because the abnormal bone growth can restrict the movement of the ossicles, leading to a conductive hearing loss. Otosclerosis typically affects one ear, and its presentation aligns with the results of the hearing tests performed in this case.

Question 8 of 9

Mark is a contractor who recently injured his back. He was told he had a "bulging disc" to account for the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop. The vertebral bodies of the spine involve which type of joint?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The vertebral bodies of the spine involve cartilaginous joints. Cartilaginous joints are connected by cartilage, which allows for slight movement and flexibility. In the spine, the cartilaginous joints between vertebral bodies are called intervertebral discs. These discs act as shock absorbers and provide cushioning between each vertebra, helping to prevent bone-on-bone contact. In Mark's case, the presence of a bulging disc suggests that there is an issue with the cartilaginous joint between his vertebral bodies, leading to the compression of a spinal nerve and causing the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop.

Question 9 of 9

Phil comes to your office with left "shoulder pain." You find that the pain is markedly worse when his left arm is drawn across his chest (adduction). Which of the following would you suspect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of pain that is markedly worse when the left arm is drawn across the chest (adduction) is characteristic of a rotator cuff tear. This is because when the arm is adducted, it puts stress on the torn rotator cuff tendons, causing pain. In contrast, subacromial bursitis typically presents with pain during overhead movements, acromioclavicular joint involvement may present with pain localized to the joint itself, and adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) typically presents with pain and stiffness that worsens with all movements.

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