You are reviewing assessment data of a 45-year-old male patient who had recent surgery and rates his pain at 8 on a 10-point scale. As you review the electronic health record, you note which of the following cues related to the patient's pain? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachypnea (rapid breathing). This is a cue related to the patient's pain because pain can lead to increased respiratory rate as a physiological response. The body's natural reaction to pain is to increase breathing to provide more oxygen to tissues. Therefore, tachypnea is a relevant cue to assess pain levels. A: Normal skin turgor is not directly related to pain assessment. Skin turgor is typically assessed to evaluate hydration status. B: Normal S1, S2 heart sounds are not directly related to pain assessment. Heart sounds are assessed to evaluate cardiac function. C: Glowing skin is not a typical cue related to pain assessment. Glowing skin may be associated with overall health and well-being but is not directly related to pain.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: It is reversible. Structural scoliosis involves irreversible changes in the spine's alignment, such as rotation and curvature due to factors like abnormal growth or spinal deformities. Reversibility is not a characteristic of structural scoliosis. A: Most cases are idiopathic - This is a characteristic of structural scoliosis as idiopathic scoliosis is the most common type. C: Subtype of structural scoliosis includes idiopathic - This supports the characteristic of idiopathic scoliosis within the structural category. D: Subtypes of structural scoliosis include congenital or acquired - This is correct as structural scoliosis can be caused by congenital abnormalities or acquired conditions, supporting the definition of structural scoliosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Late cocking. During late cocking phase of throwing, the arm is maximally externally rotated which places the elbow joint under the most valgus stress. This is due to the extreme abduction and extension of the arm at this stage, leading to increased valgus force on the elbow joint. In contrast, in the early cocking phase (choice C), the arm is in a more neutral position with less valgus stress. The wind-up phase (choice B) involves more shoulder and trunk movements rather than stressing the elbow joint. Follow-through phase (choice A) comes after the release of the ball and does not involve significant valgus stress on the elbow.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pivot shift. This test is the most specific for diagnosing an ACL tear because it assesses the rotational instability of the knee joint, which is a key characteristic of an ACL injury. During the test, the examiner applies a valgus force and internal rotation to the knee while extending it, causing the tibia to subluxate anteriorly. If there is an ACL tear, the tibia will suddenly reduce back into place, producing a characteristic "pivot shift" movement. Summary of other choices: B: Lachman test - While also used to assess ACL integrity, it primarily evaluates anterior translation of the tibia and is not as specific for rotational instability. C: Anterior drawer sign - This test is primarily used to assess anterior translation of the tibia and is not specific to diagnosing an ACL tear. D: Ege's test - This test is not commonly used in clinical practice for diagnosing ACL tears.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Second degree or partial thickness. This type of burn involves damage to both the epidermis and the dermis, resulting in blistering. First-degree burns (A) only affect the epidermis. Third-degree burns (C) extend through the dermis into deeper tissues. Unstageable burns (D) are typically associated with pressure ulcers, not burns. In this case, the presence of blistering indicates partial damage to the dermis, making the burn a second-degree or partial thickness burn.