ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
You are performing a routine check-up on an 81-year-old retired cotton farmer in the vascular surgery clinic. You note that he has a history of chronic arterial insufficiency. Which of the following physical examination findings in the lower extremities would be expected with this disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chronic arterial insufficiency results in poor blood flow to the lower extremities. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the tissues, causing damage and changes in the skin. A common physical examination finding in chronic arterial insufficiency is thin, shiny, atrophic skin. The skin may appear pale, cool to the touch, and may have decreased hair growth. It is important to note that other findings such as diminished or absent pulses and reduced temperatures may also be present with chronic arterial insufficiency.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following conditions involves a tight prepuce which, once retracted, cannot be returned?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Paraphimosis is a condition where the foreskin is retracted behind the glans penis and cannot be returned to its original position. This can lead to swelling and constriction of the penis, causing pain and potential damage to the tissue due to decreased blood flow. Phimosis (Choice A) refers to a tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans penis. Balanitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the glans penis, often associated with poor hygiene or infections. Balanoposthitis (Choice D) refers to inflammation of both the glans penis and the foreskin.
Question 3 of 9
A 28-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of pain "all over." With further questioning, she is able to relate that the pain is worse in the neck, shoulders, hands, low back, and knees. She denies swelling in her joints; she states that the pain is worse in the morning; there is no limitation in her range of motion. On physical examination, she has several points on the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and back that are tender to palpation; muscle strength and range of motion are normal. Which of the following is likely the cause of her pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and multiple tender points on palpation, especially in the neck, shoulders, back, and hips. The patient's symptoms of widespread pain and tenderness at specific points on the muscles without arthritis, joint swelling, or limitation in range of motion are consistent with fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia is often associated with poor sleep quality, morning stiffness, and fatigue, which the patient in the case provided experiences. Other conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, or polymyalgia rheumatica would typically present differently with specific joint involvement, swelling, and additional systemic symptoms, which are not seen in this patient.
Question 4 of 9
Mrs. T. comes for her regular visit to the clinic. She is on your schedule because her regular provider is on vacation and she wanted to be seen. You have heard about her many times from your colleague and are aware that she is a very talkative person. Which of the following is a helpful technique to improve the quality of the interview for both the provider and the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B, briefy summarizing what you heard from the patient in the first 5 minutes and then trying to have her focus on one aspect of what she told you, is the best technique to facilitate a more focused and efficient interview. This approach acknowledges the patient's need to talk while also guiding the conversation towards more relevant topics. By summarizing at the beginning, you demonstrate that you are listening, and by redirecting the conversation to specific points, you can ensure that important issues are addressed within the time constraints of the appointment. It can help streamline the visit and prevent it from meandering off track due to the patient's chattiness.
Question 5 of 9
Ms. Whiting is a 68-year-old who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else. She doesn't mention them. They are tender when you examine them. What should you do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presence of new flat red and purple lesions that are tender on the ulnar aspect of Ms. Whiting's forearms raises concerns and warrants further investigation. Since she did not mention them, it is important to ask how she acquired them to gather more information. This will help determine the cause of the lesions and provide clues to potential underlying conditions or recent activities that could be related to their development. It is important not to dismiss these lesions as old without proper evaluation, as they could indicate a recent injury, infection, or other medical issues that may require attention.
Question 6 of 9
When using an interpreter to facilitate an interview, where should the interpreter be positioned?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When using an interpreter to facilitate an interview, it is recommended that the interpreter be positioned next to the patient. This allows the examiner to maintain eye contact with the patient and observe their nonverbal cues, while also being able to hear the interpreter clearly. Placing the interpreter between the examiner and the patient may create a barrier to communication and make it difficult for all parties to observe each other's expressions and body language. Having the interpreter behind the examiner could make it challenging to fully see the patient's lips and nonverbal cues, which are essential in communication. Placing the interpreter in a corner of the room may also lead to decreased engagement and interaction among the participants. Therefore, positioning the interpreter next to the patient provides the most effective communication flow and allows for better observation and understanding during the interview.
Question 7 of 9
A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a "spot" on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described in the scenario is consistent with a syphilitic chancre, which is the primary lesion of syphilis. Syphilitic chancres are painless, indurated ulcers that occur at the site of initial infection with Treponema pallidum. These chancres are typically 0.5-2 cm in size, have a clean base, and are often accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy. The red oval ulcer with an indurated base in this patient, along with the absence of pain and presence of lymphadenopathy, is consistent with a syphilitic chancre.
Question 8 of 9
A daycare worker presents to your office with jaundice. She denies IV drug use, blood transfusion, and travel and has not been sexually active for the past 10 months. Which type of hepatitis is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Among the options presented, Hepatitis B (HBV) is most likely in this scenario. HBV can be transmitted through mucous membrane exposure to infectious blood or body fluids, including sexual contact. The daycare worker's history of not being sexually active for the past 10 months would not completely rule out the possibility of acquiring HBV through a past sexual encounter. Also, HBV can persist in the blood for prolonged periods, making it a likely cause of jaundice in this case. The other types of hepatitis (A, C, D) are less likely based on the information provided concerning the daycare worker's history and risk factors.
Question 9 of 9
Suzanne is a 20-year-old college student who complains of chest pain. This is intermittent and is located to the left of her sternum. There are no associated symptoms. On examination, you hear a short, high-pitched sound in systole, followed by a murmur which increases in intensity until S . This is heard best over the apex. When she squats, this noise moves later in systole along with the murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with mitral valve prolapse (MVP). MVP is characterized by the improper closure of the mitral valve leaflets during systole, leading to the prolapse of one or both leaflets into the left atrium. The classic auscultatory findings in MVP include a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. The click is the result of sudden tensing of the chordae tendineae as the mitral valve prolapses, and the murmur occurs as blood leaks backward (mitral regurgitation) due to imperfect valve closure.