You are palpating the apical impulse in a patient with heart disease and find that the amplitude is diffuse and increased. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause of an increase in the amplitude of the impulse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, cardiomyopathy. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle that can lead to an increase in the size and strength of the heart muscle, resulting in an increased amplitude of the apical impulse. This is due to the heart working harder to pump blood effectively. Hypothyroidism (choice A) typically does not cause an increase in the amplitude of the apical impulse. Aortic stenosis (choice B) and mitral stenosis (choice C) both result in pressure or volume overload on specific chambers of the heart, but they do not directly lead to diffuse and increased amplitude of the apical impulse like cardiomyopathy does. In summary, an increase in the amplitude of the apical impulse is more likely to be caused by cardiomyopathy due to the increased workload on the heart muscle, compared to the other conditions provided in the choices.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: One breast larger than the other is most likely benign on breast examination. This is because breast asymmetry is a common and typically benign finding in women. It is important to note that a significant difference in breast size may warrant further evaluation, but in general, slight variations in size are normal. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: Dimpling of the skin resembling that of an orange is concerning for peau d'orange appearance, which can be a sign of underlying breast cancer. C: One nipple inverted can be a sign of an underlying breast issue, such as a mass or tumor. D: One breast with a dimple when the patient leans forward can be a sign of an underlying breast abnormality, such as a tumor pulling on the skin. In summary, breast asymmetry (Choice B) is the most likely benign finding, while the other choices may indicate underlying breast issues that require further evaluation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide thickened liquids and soft foods. This intervention helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of food or liquids entering the airway. Thickened liquids are easier to control while swallowing, decreasing the chance of aspiration. Soft foods are also easier to chew and swallow, further reducing the risk. Choice A is incorrect because eating quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after meals can actually increase the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect as large meals can increase the likelihood of swallowing difficulties and aspiration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in an older adult with an indwelling urinary catheter, a fever >100°F can be a sign of urinary tract infection (UTI) or urosepsis. Given her acute decline in mental status and fever, empiric antibiotic therapy is warranted to treat a potential infection. Choice B is incorrect because older adults with indwelling catheters are at increased risk for UTIs and bloodstream infections. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a urine culture is important to confirm the diagnosis and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. Choice D is incorrect as the duration of antibiotic treatment for a UTI is typically longer than 3 days.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop aspirin and begin apixaban 5 mg twice a day. The rationale is that for stroke risk reduction in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation therapy with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban is preferred over antiplatelet therapy like aspirin. DOACs have been shown to be more effective in reducing stroke risk with a lower bleeding risk compared to warfarin. Choice A is incorrect as aspirin alone is not sufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Choice B is incorrect as warfarin has more monitoring requirements and potential drug interactions compared to DOACs like apixaban. Choice D is incorrect as aspirin and apixaban together are not recommended due to increased bleeding risk.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Advise them to file an advanced directive. An advanced directive is a legal document that allows individuals to specify their healthcare preferences in advance, including who they want to make medical decisions for them if they are unable to do so. In this scenario, since the patient and her partner are not married, it is important for her to have an advanced directive in place to ensure that her partner is legally recognized as the decision-maker. This documentation will help ensure her goals of care are followed in case she becomes incapacitated. Choice A (Advise them to complete a POLST) is incorrect because a POLST (Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment) form is used to specify a patient's wishes for end-of-life care, not for designating a medical decision-maker. Choice B (Advise them that they have adequate documentation to be recognized legally) is incorrect because without an advanced directive, there may be legal challenges to the partner's authority to make medical decisions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Regularly irregular rhythm. This is the appropriate documentation for Ms. Wright's presentation as her pulse demonstrates a pattern of irregularity with every fourth beat sounding different. This indicates a regularly irregular rhythm, where there is a discernible pattern to the irregularity. Rationale: 1. Regular rate and rhythm (Choice A) is incorrect as Ms. Wright's palpitations and the irregularity in her pulse indicate an irregular rhythm. 2. Irregularly irregular rhythm (Choice B) is incorrect as this term is used to describe arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation, which do not have a discernible pattern of irregularity. 3. Bradycardia (Choice D) is incorrect as it refers to a slow heart rate, which is not the primary concern in this scenario where the focus is on the irregular rhythm. In summary, the correct choice (C) accurately describes the specific irregular pattern observed in Ms. Wright's pulse, distinguishing it from

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.