You are ordered to administer 0.3 mL of epinephrine for a moderate allergic reaction. What is the preferred initial route of administration of epinephrine for an allergic reaction?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The preferred initial route of administration for epinephrine in an allergic reaction is intramuscular (IM) injection (Choice B) because it ensures rapid absorption and onset of action. Epinephrine acts quickly when injected into the muscle, reaching the bloodstream efficiently to counteract allergic reactions. Subcutaneous (Choice A) administration may lead to slower absorption. Intravenous (Choice C) administration is too invasive and can result in rapid, potentially dangerous effects. Endotracheal (Choice D) administration is not recommended for epinephrine as it is not a standard route and may not provide the desired therapeutic effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, "Massive hemothorax." Chest tube insertion is indicated for draining blood or other fluids from the pleural space to restore normal lung function. Massive hemothorax refers to a significant accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity, which can lead to respiratory compromise. Inserting a chest tube helps evacuate the blood, relieve pressure on the lungs, and prevent complications like tension pneumothorax. Choice A, "Pneumothorax," usually requires chest tube insertion for air drainage, not blood. Choice B, "Pneumomediastinum," typically does not require chest tube insertion but may need conservative management. Choice D, "Diaphragmatic rupture," may lead to hemothorax, but chest tube insertion would be indicated for the hemothorax itself, not the diaphragmatic rupture.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "GCS" (Glasgow Coma Scale). During the primary survey, assessing the patient's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale is crucial for identifying any potential head injuries or altered mental status due to trauma. This assessment helps determine the severity of the patient's condition and guides further management. B: Cervical spine x-ray is not indicated during the primary survey as it is more appropriate in the secondary survey to evaluate for potential cervical spine injuries. C: TT-administration (tetanus toxoid) is important for management but not a priority during the primary survey. It can be addressed later in the treatment process. D: Blood alcohol level is not crucial during the primary survey for immediate life-saving interventions. It can be considered in the secondary survey for further evaluation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a cervical spine injury can present with delayed neurologic deficits after neck movement due to spinal cord compression. This highlights the importance of assessing neurologic function in addition to physical examination findings. Choices B and C are incorrect because normal range of motion and physical examination maneuvers may not rule out a cervical spine injury. Choice D is incorrect as a crosstable lateral x-ray may miss certain types of cervical spine injuries, making it insufficient to exclude them definitively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: DPL (Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage). DPL is the most specific test for evaluating injuries of solid abdominal organs due to its ability to detect even small amounts of intra-abdominal bleeding. It involves inserting a catheter into the peritoneal cavity to obtain fluid for analysis, providing direct evidence of internal bleeding. Abdominal x-ray and ultrasound are not as specific for detecting solid organ injuries. Frequent abdominal examination may help monitor the patient's condition but does not provide definitive diagnostic information like DPL.