ATI RN
46 Free Patient Care Technician Practice Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
You are on-scene with a patient suspected of taking a large amount of meperidine hydrochloride. Which of the following interventions may be effective in reversing the adverse effects of the ingested medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Naloxone. Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine by blocking opioid receptors. By administering naloxone, it can potentially reverse respiratory depression, sedation, and other adverse effects caused by the opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (choice A) is used to absorb toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, which is not effective for opioids. Atropine (choice B) is used for treating bradycardia and not specific to opioid overdose. Romazicon (choice C) is a benzodiazepine antagonist and not effective for opioid overdose.
Question 2 of 5
A 23-year-old man is shot in the lower abdomen. The most appropriate management is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a gunshot wound to the lower abdomen, there is a high risk of intra-abdominal injuries requiring surgical intervention. Initiating fluid therapy helps stabilize the patient's hemodynamics. Transfer to the operating room is crucial for exploration and management of any internal injuries. Performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (choice A) may delay definitive management. Infusion of packed red blood cells (choice B) should be done after initial stabilization. Inserting a nasogastric tube and urinary catheter (choice C) are not the priority in this acute trauma situation.
Question 3 of 5
A trauma patient presents to your emergency department with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury. Oxygen saturation is 88% on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Maintaining inline immobilization and establishing a definitive airway is crucial in this scenario to secure the patient's airway given the presence of inspiratory stridor and potential C-spine injury. Performing a tracheostomy (B) or inserting thoracostomy tubes (C) are not indicated as the primary concern is airway management. Applying cervical traction (A) can exacerbate the C-spine injury and is not the priority over securing the airway to ensure oxygenation.
Question 4 of 5
A 36-year-old woman is beaten about the head and face and is brought to the local community hospital in full spinal immobilization. Her BP is 130/88, HR 70/min, and RR 18/min. Pulse oximetry indicated 98% while she was given 100% O2 via a non-rebreather mask. Her airway is clear. She has marked swellings on her face and several lacerations of her scalp that are not actively bleeding. She does not respond to verbal stimuli, but localizes to painful stimuli and opens her eyes. She moves all extremities equally. The remainder of her physical exam is normal. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital. After ensuring the patient's airway, the most appropriate course of action is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan. Rationale: 1. Patient presents with head trauma and neurological symptoms. 2. CT-scan is the gold standard for assessing head injuries. 3. In this case, the patient needs prompt neurosurgical evaluation. 4. Delaying transfer for a CT-scan can worsen the patient's condition. 5. Immediate neurosurgical intervention may be required for intracranial injuries. 6. This decision prioritizes the patient's urgent need for specialized care over diagnostic imaging. Summary: - Choice A: Admitting for observation delays specialist care. - Choice B: X-ray of facial bones is unnecessary for neurological assessment. - Choice C: Complete cervical spine x-ray is not the priority in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A 17-year-old female falls from 2 meters and is unresponsive. The first step in treatment is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in a trauma scenario, ensuring airway patency and oxygenation is the priority to prevent hypoxia, especially in an unresponsive patient. Administering vasopressors (A) is not the initial step as the focus should be on airway management first. Establishing IV access for drug-assisted intubation (B) is important but not the first step. Seeking the cause of decreased level of consciousness (C) can be done after securing the airway and providing oxygen. Thus, applying oxygen and maintaining the airway (D) is the most critical initial intervention.