ATI RN
Basic Post-Operative Care of a Patient Questions
Question 1 of 5
You are on-scene with a 40-year-old patient with an extensive cardiac history for his age. Today, he is complaining of chest pain that radiates to his jaw and left arm. His vital signs are stable; however, once on the cardiac monitor, he exhibits ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVf. With the EKG finding, which of the following should you suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: An inferior wall myocardial infarction. The ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVf indicates involvement of the inferior wall of the heart. This pattern is classic for an inferior wall MI. The chest pain radiating to the jaw and left arm is also suggestive of cardiac origin. Aortic dissection typically presents with severe tearing or ripping chest pain and may have unequal blood pressure in the arms. Pulmonary embolism usually presents with sudden-onset dyspnea and chest pain, often worsened by deep breathing or coughing. A septal wall MI would typically present with ST elevation in leads V1-V2.
Question 2 of 5
You are treating a COPD patient for mild shortness of breath when you note the presence of pursed lips and sighing-type respirations at 26/minute. Why would the patient present with pursed lips and frequent sighing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent atelectasis from occurring at the end of exhalation. Pursed lips and sighing respirations help create positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) in the airways, preventing alveolar collapse and promoting gas exchange. Pursed lips maintain airway patency, while sighing helps to recruit collapsed alveoli. A: Incorrect - Pursed lips and sighing are not related to expelling foreign bodies or irritants from the lower airway. C: Incorrect - Pursed lips and sighing are not associated with preventing pleural friction rub or pleurisy. D: Incorrect - Pursed lips and sighing do not directly increase the size of the air sacs in the lungs to improve oxygenation.
Question 3 of 5
A 33-year-old man is struck by a car at 56 km/h. His next priority should be to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Perform diagnostic peritoneal lavage or FAST. This is the priority in trauma management to assess for intra-abdominal injuries like bleeding. External fixation (A) is for stabilizing pelvic fractures, not a priority. Abdominal and pelvic CT-scans (B) and arterial embolization (C) are not immediate actions and may delay crucial interventions. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage or FAST (D) are rapid and effective methods to detect intra-abdominal bleeding in trauma patients.
Question 4 of 5
During resuscitation ,which one of the following is the most reliable as a guide to volume replacement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urinary output. This is because urinary output is a direct indicator of kidney perfusion and function, reflecting the body's response to volume status. Increasing urinary output suggests adequate volume replacement, while decreasing output may indicate hypovolemia. Heart rate, hematocrit, and blood pressure can be influenced by various factors and may not always accurately reflect volume status. Urinary output is considered the most reliable guide to volume replacement during resuscitation as it provides real-time feedback on kidney perfusion and fluid balance.
Question 5 of 5
Burn victim, core temperature is 34 What's next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct next step is to rewarm the burn victim with a core temperature of 34°C. Hypothermia increases mortality in burn patients. Rewarming is crucial to prevent further complications. Escharotomy is for circulation issues, oxygen mask for respiratory problems, and IV narcotics for pain management, but rewarming takes priority in this scenario to stabilize the patient's core temperature.