You are on-scene with a 12-year-old trauma patient who has a large laceration on the inner aspect of his upper right arm with an estimated blood loss of around 15%. The bleeding has now decreased while the patient remains conscious, alert, and anxious. His skin is warm; his heart rate is 96 bpm, and his blood pressure is 108/50. After assessing the child, you believe the patient may be in hypovolemic shock. If so, which stage of shock is the patient most likely experiencing?

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Basic Care of a Paraplegic Patient Questions

Question 1 of 5

You are on-scene with a 12-year-old trauma patient who has a large laceration on the inner aspect of his upper right arm with an estimated blood loss of around 15%. The bleeding has now decreased while the patient remains conscious, alert, and anxious. His skin is warm; his heart rate is 96 bpm, and his blood pressure is 108/50. After assessing the child, you believe the patient may be in hypovolemic shock. If so, which stage of shock is the patient most likely experiencing?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stage 2. In stage 2 of hypovolemic shock, the body compensates for the blood loss by increasing heart rate and maintaining blood pressure. This is seen in the patient's presentation with a heart rate of 96 bpm and a blood pressure of 108/50. The decreased bleeding and the patient being conscious, alert, and anxious also indicate early signs of shock. In stage 1, there would be no significant physiological changes yet, and in stage 3 and 4, the patient would exhibit more severe symptoms such as altered mental status, profound hypotension, and organ failure, which are not present in this case. Therefore, based on the patient's vital signs and symptoms, the most likely stage of shock the patient is experiencing is stage 2.

Question 2 of 5

You are working in a pre-hospital setting and are called for a 40-year-old male who was the victim of a stabbing. The patient has a blood pressure of 87/50 and a heart rate of 130. There is a large amount of blood on the scene. After applying direct pressure to the wound on the patient's arm and stopping the bleeding, of the following what would be the best intervention to mitigate the patient's blood pressure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: Establishing an IV and administering fluid to keep the patient's BP at or near 90 systolic is the best intervention. This approach aims to increase the patient's blood volume, improve tissue perfusion, and support vital organ function. The goal is to stabilize the patient's blood pressure within a safe range to prevent further complications. This approach is a standard practice in managing hypotension due to hemorrhage. Summary: A: Administering 2 liters of fluid may be excessive and could lead to fluid overload in this scenario. B: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor and should only be considered if fluid resuscitation fails to improve the patient's blood pressure. C: Dopamine is also a vasopressor and is typically used in more severe cases of hypotension. It is not the first-line intervention in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

Your adult trauma patient has a potential internal injury allowing bleeding into the thoracic cavity. As a general rule, where should the patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP) be maintained while treating and transporting the patient to the hospital?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: MAP of 60 mmHg to 65 mmHg. Maintaining a MAP within this range is crucial for perfusing vital organs adequately, especially in a trauma patient with potential internal bleeding. A MAP below this range (choices A, B) can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and organ damage. A MAP above this range (choice C) may increase the risk of exacerbating bleeding in the thoracic cavity. Therefore, maintaining a MAP of 60-65 mmHg strikes a balance between ensuring adequate organ perfusion and minimizing the risk of worsening bleeding.

Question 4 of 5

A 6-year-old boy is struck by an automobile and brought to the E The preferred route of venous access in this patient is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, percutaneous peripheral veins in the upper extremities. In a 6-year-old boy, the preferred route of venous access is peripheral veins in the upper extremities because they are easily accessible and have lower complication rates compared to other options. This route allows for rapid administration of fluids and medications in emergency situations. Percutaneous femoral vein cannulation (A) may be more invasive and carries a higher risk of complications. Cutdown on the saphenous vein at the ankle (B) is not ideal due to its location and potential difficulty in accessing. Intraosseous catheter placement in the proximal tibia (C) is a viable option but may be more invasive and time-consuming compared to peripheral veins in the upper extremities.

Question 5 of 5

A cross-table lateral x-ray of the cervical spine:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because visualization of all 7 cervical vertebrae and the C7 to T1 relationship is essential for proper evaluation of the cervical spine on a cross-table lateral x-ray. This allows for assessment of alignment, fractures, dislocations, and potential injuries. Option A is incorrect as the x-ray does not need to precede endotracheal intubation. Option B is incorrect as serious cervical spine injuries can still be present even if not initially seen on the x-ray. Option D is incorrect because unconscious patients with penetrating cervical injuries may still benefit from a cross-table lateral x-ray to assess for additional injuries.

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