You are on-scene assisting another crew with a childbirth call that quickly turned into a neonatal resuscitation. The newborn does not have a palpable brachial pulse, but muffled heart tones and the monitor confirm a sluggish heart rate of 55 beats per minute. After reassessing him after a few minutes of high-quality chest compressions and effective ventilations with 100% oxygen concentration, the patient's heart rate fails to respond. Which of the following would be considered a class IIa intervention for this patient?

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Chapter 70 Care of Patients with Breast Disorders Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

You are on-scene assisting another crew with a childbirth call that quickly turned into a neonatal resuscitation. The newborn does not have a palpable brachial pulse, but muffled heart tones and the monitor confirm a sluggish heart rate of 55 beats per minute. After reassessing him after a few minutes of high-quality chest compressions and effective ventilations with 100% oxygen concentration, the patient's heart rate fails to respond. Which of the following would be considered a class IIa intervention for this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intraosseous route. In neonatal resuscitation, when a newborn fails to respond to initial resuscitative efforts, the next step is to administer epinephrine. In this scenario, the recommended dose for neonates is 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine. Delivering it via the intraosseous route in this critical situation ensures rapid absorption and distribution, potentially improving the newborn's heart rate and perfusion. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular route is not as effective and rapid in neonatal resuscitation compared to the intraosseous route. Choice C is also incorrect as delivering epinephrine via the endotracheal tube route is not recommended due to poor absorption and efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as intravenous access might not

Question 2 of 5

During a detailed physical exam of your dyspneic 73-year-old female patient, you palpate small pockets of air in the subcutaneous tissue of the skin in the upper right region of her chest, just below her clavicle. Which of the following medical conditions is most likely to cause this abnormal finding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spontaneous pneumothorax. In this scenario, the presence of small pockets of air in the subcutaneous tissue of the chest indicates air escaping from the lung into the subcutaneous tissue due to a lung pathology. Spontaneous pneumothorax, a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space causing lung collapse, is the most likely cause in this case. Bacterial pneumonia (A) typically presents with lung consolidation and does not lead to subcutaneous emphysema. Dry pleurisy (C) is inflammation of the pleura without the presence of fluid or air in the pleural space. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (D) is characterized by airflow limitation and does not directly cause subcutaneous emphysema.

Question 3 of 5

Your adult respiratory insufficiency patient's respirations are shallow and irregular at six times per minute. His SpO2 is 76 mm Hg, and you suspect carbon dioxide retention due to the decreased respiratory effort. Which of the following should you suspect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the patient's shallow and irregular respirations lead to inadequate ventilation, causing CO2 retention. This results in an increase in blood CO2 levels, leading to respiratory acidosis. The low SpO2 suggests poor oxygenation but is not directly related to the acid-base imbalance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the symptoms described are more indicative of respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation.

Question 4 of 5

Epinephrine is effective in helping reverse the adverse effects of anaphylaxis. It is the drug of choice because it causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction to improve respiratory effort and improve blood pressure. What other effect does epinephrine have on the patient's body during an anaphylactic reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A): 1. Epinephrine acts on alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors. 2. By binding to alpha receptors, it causes vasoconstriction which helps in increasing blood pressure. 3. By binding to beta-2 receptors, it causes bronchodilation which improves respiratory effort. 4. Epinephrine also reduces the release of chemical mediators such as histamine from mast cells, which helps in counteracting the allergic response. 5. Therefore, choice A is correct as it highlights an additional beneficial effect of epinephrine in managing anaphylaxis. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Epinephrine does not directly reduce the inflammatory response; it mainly acts on vasoconstriction and bronchodilation. C: While epinephrine can increase heart rate, the primary purpose is not to improve peripheral perfusion, but to counteract the effects of anaphylaxis.

Question 5 of 5

Helmeted motorcyclist struck broadside, unconscious, blood pressure 140/90, heart rate 90 bpm, GCS 6. Immobilization includes all EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Air splints." Air splints are not typically used for immobilization of a motorcyclist with potential spinal injuries. The rationale is that air splints are primarily used for stabilizing extremity fractures, not for spinal immobilization. In this scenario, the motorcyclist is unconscious with a low GCS score, indicating a potential spinal injury. Choices B, C, and D are used for immobilization of a trauma patient with suspected spinal injuries. Bolstering devices help maintain spinal alignment, a long spine board provides full-body immobilization, and a scoop-style stretcher allows for easy transfer without movement.

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