ATI RN
Wongs Essentials of Pediatric Nursing 11th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
You are explaining the risk of leukemia in children with Down syndrome to medical students; your discussion will include all the following statements EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, it is crucial for medical students to understand the association between Down syndrome and leukemia. The correct answer, option D, states that children with Down syndrome who develop AML demonstrate remarkable sensitivity to antimetabolites. This is the correct answer because children with Down syndrome are indeed more sensitive to chemotherapy, particularly antimetabolites, which can lead to better outcomes in treating AML. Option A is incorrect because acute leukemia occurs more frequently in children with Down syndrome than in the general population, making it a relevant point to discuss. Option B is incorrect as well since AML is more common in children with Down syndrome compared to ALL, which is another important aspect to highlight. Option C is also incorrect because children with Down syndrome, unfortunately, have a slightly inferior outcome ratio of ALL/AML in general, which is essential information for medical students to be aware of in providing care to these patients. Educationally, understanding the specific risks and treatment considerations for children with Down syndrome and leukemia is vital for healthcare professionals to deliver tailored and effective care. By knowing these nuances, medical students can provide better support and treatment to this vulnerable patient population.
Question 2 of 5
Although the etiology of hepatoblastoma is unknown, there are many associated risk factors for development of hepatoblastoma EXCEPT
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is E, which implies that none of the provided options are associated risk factors for the development of hepatoblastoma. A) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a known risk factor for hepatoblastoma. It is characterized by overgrowth, abdominal wall defects, and an increased risk of developing childhood cancers. B) Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome is also a risk factor for hepatoblastoma. This syndrome is characterized by the development of numerous polyps in the colon and rectum, increasing the risk of colorectal cancer as well as hepatoblastoma. C) Prematurity is not a known risk factor for hepatoblastoma. Prematurity is associated with various complications, but not specifically with hepatoblastoma. D) Low birth weight is also not a known risk factor for hepatoblastoma. While low birth weight infants may have other health concerns, it is not directly linked to the development of hepatoblastoma. Educational Context: Understanding the risk factors associated with hepatoblastoma is crucial for healthcare providers working in pediatrics. By knowing the risk factors, healthcare providers can monitor high-risk children more closely, potentially leading to early detection and intervention. This knowledge can also aid in educating parents about the importance of regular check-ups and screenings for their children.
Question 3 of 5
Nearly all cervical carcinomas contain human papillomavirus (HPV). Which of the following types is never associated with such malignancy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question from the Wongs Essentials of Pediatric Nursing 11th Edition Test Bank, the correct answer is A) type 6. The rationale behind this is that while types 16, 18, and 31 of human papillomavirus (HPV) are known to be associated with cervical carcinomas, type 6 is not. Type 16 and 18 are considered high-risk types of HPV and are commonly linked to the development of cervical cancer. Type 31 is also known to be associated with cervical malignancy. Understanding the specific types of HPV that are linked to cervical cancer is crucial in the context of pediatric nursing as it informs healthcare providers about the risks associated with certain strains of the virus. Educationally, this question helps reinforce the importance of HPV vaccination and screening for cervical cancer in pediatric patients. By knowing which types of HPV are linked to malignancy, nurses can advocate for appropriate preventive measures and screenings to protect young patients from the potential risks of HPV-related cervical cancer.
Question 4 of 5
Chemotherapy has a major role in many childhood CNS tumors. In which of the following tumors is chemotherapy not effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chemotherapy is a crucial treatment modality for many childhood CNS tumors, but its effectiveness varies depending on the tumor type. In the case of pilocytic astrocytoma, it is typically considered a low-grade tumor with a well-defined structure, making it more amenable to surgical resection and less responsive to chemotherapy. This tumor usually has a good prognosis with surgery alone. Craniopharyngioma, pineoblastoma, and SPNETs are more aggressive tumors that often require a multimodal treatment approach involving surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation. Chemotherapy plays a significant role in targeting the rapidly dividing cancer cells in these types of tumors, helping to reduce tumor size, prevent recurrence, and improve overall outcomes. Educationally, understanding the varying responses of different CNS tumors to chemotherapy is essential for healthcare providers involved in the care of pediatric oncology patients. It highlights the importance of individualized treatment plans based on tumor characteristics and guides discussions with families regarding treatment expectations and potential outcomes. This knowledge empowers healthcare professionals to provide optimal care and support to pediatric patients and their families facing CNS tumors.
Question 5 of 5
Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in children and adolescents; it has multiple subtypes and requires different modalities of treatment including surgery and chemotherapy. Of the following, the subtype of osteosarcoma which is treated by surgery alone is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) periosteal. Periosteal osteosarcoma is a subtype of osteosarcoma that typically presents in the surface of the bone, making it more amenable to complete surgical resection without the need for chemotherapy. This subtype has a better prognosis compared to other subtypes like fibroblastic, chondroblastic, and parosteal osteosarcoma. Fibroblastic and chondroblastic osteosarcomas are subtypes that usually require a combination of surgery and chemotherapy for optimal treatment outcomes. Parosteal osteosarcoma, while slow-growing and low-grade, may also necessitate a combination of surgical resection and chemotherapy due to its location and potential for recurrence. In an educational context, understanding the different subtypes of osteosarcoma and their varying treatment modalities is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children and adolescents with this condition. It highlights the importance of accurate diagnosis, appropriate treatment planning, and the role of interdisciplinary collaboration in managing pediatric oncology patients effectively.