ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau's lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Beau's lines are transverse grooves or depressions in the nails that occur from a temporary disruption in nail growth. These lines can be caused by a variety of factors, including systemic diseases, medication use, trauma, or environmental stressors. However, one of the most common causes of Beau's lines is a significant physiological stress such as a severe illness or major surgery that occurred about 3 months prior to the appearance of the lines. Therefore, looking for information from family and records regarding any problems that occurred around 3 months ago is the most appropriate next step to understand the underlying cause of Beau's lines in this unconscious patient. This information can provide crucial insights into the patient's medical history and potential underlying health issues that may need to be addressed.
Question 2 of 9
A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely pathologic process based on the patient's symptoms and history would be an inflammatory process. The patient's joint pain, fever, and family history of rheumatoid arthritis suggest the possibility of an autoimmune inflammatory condition like rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The bilateral involvement of the wrists and fingers along with a family history of rheumatoid arthritis make this diagnosis more likely than an infectious, hematologic, or traumatic process in this case.
Question 3 of 9
Two weeks ago, Mary started a job which requires carrying 40-pound buckets. She presents with elbow pain worse on the right. On examination, it hurts her elbows to dorsiflex her hands against resistance when her palms face the floor. What condition does she have?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition characterized by pain and tenderness on the lateral (outside) aspect of the elbow. It is typically caused by overuse or repetitive strain of the extensor muscles in the forearm, leading to inflammation of the tendons attached to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
Question 4 of 9
Which lung sound possesses the characteristics of being louder and higher in pitch, with a short silence between inspiration and expiration and with expiration being longer than inspiration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The characteristics described - being louder and higher in pitch, with a short silence between inspiration and expiration, and expiration being longer than inspiration - are indicative of the bronchial lung sound. The bronchial sound is typically heard over the trachea area and can be louder and higher-pitched than other lung sounds due to conduction of sounds through the bronchial tree. The short silence between inspiration and expiration is due to the short expiratory phase during which air rushes out quickly, whereas expiration is longer than inspiration in this sound due to the increased airflow velocity during expiration.
Question 5 of 9
Jean has just given birth 6 months ago and is breast-feeding her child. She has not had a period since giving birth. What does this most likely represent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation for 3-6 months in a woman who previously had regular menstrual cycles. In this case, Jean's lack of menstruation after giving birth and while breastfeeding her child for 6 months likely indicates secondary amenorrhea. This temporary suppression of ovulation and menstruation commonly occurs during breastfeeding due to the high levels of the hormone prolactin, which is responsible for milk production and can inhibit ovulation and menstruation. It is a natural phenomenon known as lactational amenorrhea. Once breastfeeding decreases or stops, menstruation usually resumes within a few months.
Question 6 of 9
Suzanne, a 25 year old, comes to your clinic to establish care. You are the student preparing to go into the examination room to interview her. Which of the following is the most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview is to greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient's story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient's story, and negotiate a plan. This sequence ensures a patient-centered approach by first building a connection with the patient, allowing the patient to share their concerns and story, and then working collaboratively with the patient to address these concerns. It is important to start by building rapport to establish trust and a comfortable environment for the patient to open up about their health concerns. Inviting the patient's story allows the provider to understand the patient's perspective and how their symptoms are impacting their life. Establishing the agenda sets the priorities for the visit and ensures that both the provider and patient are on the same page. Expanding and clarifying the patient's story helps gather more detailed information, leading to a comprehensive assessment. Finally, negotiating a plan together with the patient ensures shared decision-making and a patient-centered approach
Question 7 of 9
You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau's lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Beau's lines are transverse grooves or depressions in the nails that occur from a temporary disruption in nail growth. These lines can be caused by a variety of factors, including systemic diseases, medication use, trauma, or environmental stressors. However, one of the most common causes of Beau's lines is a significant physiological stress such as a severe illness or major surgery that occurred about 3 months prior to the appearance of the lines. Therefore, looking for information from family and records regarding any problems that occurred around 3 months ago is the most appropriate next step to understand the underlying cause of Beau's lines in this unconscious patient. This information can provide crucial insights into the patient's medical history and potential underlying health issues that may need to be addressed.
Question 8 of 9
Common or concerning symptoms to inquire about in the General Survey and vital signs include all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Changes in weight, fatigue and weakness, fever and chills are common symptoms that can provide valuable information about a person's overall health. These symptoms may indicate underlying medical conditions and merit further investigation. However, a cough, while it can be a symptom of various respiratory or systemic illnesses, is not typically part of the General Survey and vital signs assessment. It is usually addressed in a more focused respiratory assessment.
Question 9 of 9
A 36-year-old security officer comes to your clinic, complaining of a painless mass in his scrotum. He found it 3 days ago during a testicular self-examination. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during sexual intercourse. He denies any weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is notable for high blood pressure. He is married and has three healthy children. He denies using illegal drugs, smokes two to three cigars a week, and drinks six to eight alcoholic beverages per week. His mother is in good health and his father had high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. On physical examination he appears anxious but in no pain. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions. His inguinal region has no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum shows a soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. There is no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring. With weight bearing there are no bulges. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What disorder of the scrotum does he most likely have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient most likely has a hydrocele based on the presentation of a painless, soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid surrounding the testicle within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in a painless scrotal swelling. It is common and can occur at any age but is more common in older individuals. A key feature of a hydrocele is that the swelling is not reducible, meaning it cannot be pushed back into the abdomen. In this patient, there was no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring, ruling out a scrotal hernia. Testicular tumors typically present as painless testicular masses but are usually solid rather than cystic. Varicoceles are enlarged veins within the scrotum and have a characteristic "bag of worms" appearance on palpation, which is not described in this case.