ATI RN
Pediatric NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
You are evaluating a 6-year-old child with ALL on interim maintenance phase who has frequent mucositis and myelosuppression that needs frequent discontinuation of his treatment. Of the following, the MOST valuable test for this child is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: TPMT gene testing helps determine the child's ability to metabolize thiopurine drugs, which may explain the adverse effects.
Question 2 of 5
Which is instituted for the therapeutic management of minimal change nephrotic syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy for minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, and corticosteroids are highly effective in inducing remission in these patients. They work by reducing inflammation and decreasing the permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier in the kidneys, thereby reducing proteinuria. Antihypertensive agents are used to control blood pressure in patients with renal involvement, and long-term diuretics are not typically recommended in nephrotic syndrome due to the risk of worsening kidney function. Increased fluids to promote diuresis are also not indicated as the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
Which painful, tender, pea-sized nodules may appear on the pads of the fingers or toes in bacterial endocarditis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Osler nodes are painful, tender, pea-sized nodules that can appear on the pads of the fingers or toes and are associated with bacterial endocarditis. These nodules result from immune-complex deposition in the small blood vessels of the skin. They are not to be confused with Janeway lesions, which are painless, non-tender macules found on the palms and soles in infective endocarditis. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in conditions like rheumatic fever, while Aschoff nodes are characteristic of rheumatic fever involving the heart.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which "related-to" phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is likely to experience impaired balance due to the location of the tumor affecting the cerebellum, which is responsible for coordinating movement and balance. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and other injuries, making it a priority concern for the client. Therefore, adding "Related to impaired balance" to the nursing diagnosis statement would be the most appropriate choice to address the client's risk for injury in this situation.
Question 5 of 5
Maintaining the infusion rate of hyperalimentation solutions is a nursing responsibility. What side effects would you anticipate from too rapid infusion rate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Too rapid infusion of hyperalimentation solutions can lead to circulatory overload due to the rapid volume expansion, which can strain the heart and lead to fluid overload. This can manifest as symptoms such as shortness of breath, crackles in the lungs, and edema. Additionally, a rapid infusion rate can cause a sudden surge in glucose levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia due to increased insulin release in response to the elevated glucose levels. It is important for the nurse to maintain a careful and appropriate infusion rate to prevent these complications and ensure patient safety.