ATI RN
Pediatric Research Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
You are evaluating a 6-mo-old girl with a firm right suprarenal mass. Histologically, there is no bony involvement, 10% bone marrow involvement, subcutaneous nodules involvement, and massive abdominal mass. The N-myc oncogene is not amplified. According to the international neuroblastoma staging system, the infant is stratified as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) stage IV S. This is because the scenario describes a 6-month-old girl with a neuroblastoma tumor that has already metastasized extensively, with involvement in the bone marrow, subcutaneous tissue, and a massive abdominal mass. The absence of N-myc amplification suggests a more favorable prognosis than if N-myc were amplified. Option A) stage I is incorrect because there is already metastasis present in this case. Option B) stage II A is also incorrect as the tumor has spread beyond the primary site. Option C) stage III is not the correct choice because of the extensive metastasis described in the scenario. Educationally, understanding the staging of neuroblastoma is crucial for pediatric practitioners as it guides treatment decisions and prognostication. This case highlights the importance of recognizing the extent of disease spread in neuroblastoma cases and how specific genetic markers can influence prognosis and treatment strategies. This knowledge is essential for providing optimal care to pediatric patients with neuroblastoma.
Question 2 of 5
An adolescent patient, who has pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), inquires about the effects of the disease on their ability to bear children. What is the pediatric nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) There is an increased risk for ectopic pregnancy or infertility. Pediatric nurses play a crucial role in educating patients about the potential consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) on their reproductive health. PID can lead to scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (a serious condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus) or infertility (difficulty conceiving). By choosing this option, the nurse addresses the patient's concerns accurately and provides important information for their future reproductive health decisions. Option A is incorrect because while PID can lead to complications during pregnancy, such as preterm birth, it does not specifically increase the occurrence of spontaneous abortion. Option C is incorrect as placenta previa is not directly associated with PID. Option D is incorrect as PID can indeed impact fertility and increase the risk of complications like ectopic pregnancy, making it an oversimplified and inaccurate response to the patient's inquiry. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of pediatric nurses being knowledgeable about the long-term effects of PID on adolescent patients' reproductive health. It emphasizes the need for clear and accurate communication with patients to empower them to make informed decisions about their healthcare and future fertility.
Question 3 of 5
By the age of 7 months, the infant is able to do all the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question focusing on infant developmental milestones, the correct answer is option D) cruises. Cruising typically occurs around 9-12 months of age, not at 7 months. At 7 months, infants are usually mastering skills such as transferring objects from hand to hand, using a radial palm grasp, and actively bouncing. Option A) transferring objects from hand to hand is a fine motor skill that infants develop around 6-7 months of age. This skill showcases their growing dexterity and hand-eye coordination. Option B) actively bouncing refers to the ability of infants to bounce while being held or when supported in a standing position. This skill is usually seen around 6-9 months and demonstrates their increasing strength and coordination. Option C) using a radial palm grasp is a grasping skill where the infant picks up objects using their whole hand and fingers. This grasp typically emerges around 6-7 months and is an important precursor to more refined pincer grasp. In an educational context, understanding typical developmental milestones in infants is crucial for educators, caregivers, and healthcare professionals. It helps in monitoring a child's progress, identifying any potential delays early on, and providing appropriate interventions or support when needed. By knowing what to expect at different ages, professionals can create enriching environments that support optimal development and learning for infants.
Question 4 of 5
The MOST common cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months of life is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) colic. Colic is the most common cause of sleeping difficulty in infants during the first 2 months of life. Colic presents with excessive crying, fussiness, and difficulty in consoling the baby, leading to disrupted sleep patterns. This condition typically peaks around 6 weeks of age and gradually improves by 3-4 months. Option A) gastro-esophageal reflux can cause discomfort in infants, but it typically manifests as more of a feeding issue rather than a primary cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months. Option C) formula intolerance can also lead to fussiness and discomfort in infants, but it is less common than colic as a cause of sleeping difficulties in the early months of life. Option D) developmentally self-resolving sleeping behavior refers to normal changes in an infant's sleep patterns as they grow and develop. While this can impact sleep, it is not the most common cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months. Educationally, understanding the common causes of sleeping difficulty in infants is crucial for healthcare providers, caregivers, and educators working with young children. Recognizing colic as a primary culprit in disrupted sleep can guide interventions and support strategies for both the infant and their caregivers, promoting better sleep hygiene and overall well-being in the early months of life.
Question 5 of 5
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the use of validated standardized developmental screening tools at three of the health maintenance visits, these are at
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) 9 months, 18 months, and 30 months. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends using validated standardized developmental screening tools at these specific health maintenance visits to monitor a child's developmental progress effectively. Option A) 2 months, 6 months, and 12 months is incorrect because developmental screenings are not typically done this early in infancy. At 2 months, screenings focus more on general health and growth parameters. Option B) 6 months, 12 months, and 18 months is incorrect as well. While developmental milestones are important to monitor during these ages, the AAP specifically recommends screenings at different intervals. Option D) 12 months, 18 months, and 24 months is also incorrect. Although these ages are crucial for developmental monitoring, they do not align with the AAP's recommended timings for standardized screenings. Educationally, understanding the recommended schedule for developmental screenings is vital for healthcare providers and caregivers to ensure early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. By following the AAP guidelines, children can receive timely interventions and support if needed, ultimately leading to better long-term outcomes.