ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
You are discussing prognosis with the mother of a patient with stage 3, group III rhabdomyosarcoma. Which of the following is the most unfavorable primary site?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extremity. Rhabdomyosarcoma has a better prognosis when located in the extremities compared to other sites due to easier surgical resection and less risk of metastasis. Prostate (B) is less common in children and has a poorer prognosis. Infratemporal fossa (C) and neck (D) sites have a higher risk of local invasion and metastasis, leading to a worse prognosis compared to extremity sites.
Question 2 of 5
An older client asks the nurse why 'people my age' have weaker immune systems than younger people. What responses by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - As we age, there is a decrease in the production of plasma proteins, which are essential for immune function. - Lower levels of plasma proteins can lead to a weaker immune response. - This decline in plasma proteins can make older individuals more susceptible to infections. - Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the impact of aging on immune system function.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following requires IL-2 and IL-4 in the conversion of unilineage progenitor cell into mature circulating cell?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: B lymphocyte. IL-2 and IL-4 are crucial for the differentiation of B lymphocytes from unilineage progenitor cells. IL-2 supports proliferation and survival of B cells, while IL-4 promotes their differentiation into mature circulating cells. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils develop independently of IL-2 and IL-4. Neutrophils mainly require granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF), eosinophils require IL-5, and basophils are influenced by IL-3 and IL-5. Therefore, the correct answer is D as B lymphocytes specifically rely on IL-2 and IL-4 for their maturation.
Question 4 of 5
A 40 year old patient is presented with unilateral palpebral edema and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy. He later develops megaesophagus and megacolon as complications. Which of the following vector is responsible for this parasitic infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rhodnius prolixus. This vector is responsible for transmitting Trypanosoma cruzi, causing Chagas disease. The initial symptoms of unilateral palpebral edema and lymphadenopathy are characteristic of Chagas disease. The complications of megaesophagus and megacolon are also common manifestations of chronic Chagas disease. Glossina morsitans (A) transmits African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness), Ixodes scapularis (B) transmits Lyme disease, and Simulium damnosum (D) transmits onchocerciasis (river blindness), so they are not associated with the symptoms described.
Question 5 of 5
The typical Reed-Sternberg cells are either infrequent or absent. Instead, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells or 'popcorn cells' are seen within a background of inflammatory cells, which are predominantly benign lymphocytes. Which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma best suit the description?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lymphocyte predominance. In this type of Hodgkin's lymphoma, the typical Reed-Sternberg cells are absent or rare. Instead, popcorn cells (lymphocytic and histiocytic cells) are seen among benign lymphocytes. This is characteristic of lymphocyte predominance subtype. A: Nodular sclerosis - characterized by lacunar Reed-Sternberg cells in a background of collagen bands. B: Mixed cellularity - characterized by numerous Reed-Sternberg cells, eosinophils, plasma cells, and histiocytes in a background of mixed inflammatory cells. C: Lymphocyte depleted - characterized by few Reed-Sternberg cells in a background of fibrosis and few inflammatory cells. Therefore, based on the description provided, choice D is the most appropriate answer.