ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patients admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively. Patient with pancreatitis may have depleted levels of phosphorus due to malnutrition, and rapid initiation of TPN can further decrease phosphorus levels, leading to hypophosphatemia. This can result in respiratory failure, muscle weakness, and arrhythmias. Choice A is incorrect because patients receiving TPN are not specifically at risk for hypercalcemia due to rapid initiation of calories. Choice C is incorrect because rapid fluid infusion can lead to hypernatremia, not related to TPN initiation. Choice D is incorrect because the rationale provided for slow initiation is not related to digestive enzymes but rather to prevent hypophosphatemia in malnourished patients.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is providing care for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When describing the process of respiration the nurse explains how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli. The nurse is describing what process?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diffusion. In respiration, oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries through the process of diffusion. Here's the rationale: 1. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. 2. In the alveoli, oxygen moves from the air (higher concentration) into the blood (lower concentration) and carbon dioxide moves from the blood (higher concentration) into the air (lower concentration). 3. This exchange occurs passively, without the need for energy input, which is characteristic of diffusion. Summary of other choices: B: Osmosis involves the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane, not gas exchange. C: Active transport requires energy input to move molecules against their concentration gradient, not seen in gas exchange. D: Filtration involves the movement of molecules through a membrane under pressure, not the passive movement of gases in respiration.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension. For which acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess to prevent complications of this therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic alkalosis. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion and metabolic alkalosis due to excessive loss of chloride and hydrogen ions. The nurse should assess for signs of metabolic alkalosis such as confusion, muscle weakness, and dysrhythmias to prevent complications. Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis are not directly related to furosemide therapy. Metabolic acidosis is less likely due to furosemide's mechanism of action.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse assesses a client who was started on intraperitoneal therapy 5 days ago. The client reports abdominal pain and feeling warm. For which complication of this therapy should the nurse assess this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, infection. The client's symptoms of abdominal pain and feeling warm are indicative of a potential infection, which is a common complication of intraperitoneal therapy. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Abdominal pain can be a sign of peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneal cavity. 2. Feeling warm may indicate a fever, a common symptom of infection. 3. Prompt assessment and treatment of infection are crucial to prevent complications. Summary of other choices: A, allergic reaction - unlikely given the symptoms described; B, bowel obstruction - does not align with the symptoms provided; C, catheter lumen occlusion - not typically associated with abdominal pain and feeling warm.
Question 5 of 9
.A nurse assesses a clients peripheral IV site, and notices edema and tenderness above the site. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action is to stop the infusion of intravenous fluids. Edema and tenderness above the IV site suggest infiltration, where fluid leaks into surrounding tissues. Stopping the infusion prevents further damage and helps prevent complications. Applying cold compresses (A) may not address the underlying issue. Elevating the extremity (B) is helpful for other conditions like swelling due to dependent edema, not infiltration. Flushing the catheter (C) can exacerbate the issue by pushing more fluid into the tissue.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has the following laboratory results: potassium 3.4 mEq/L, magnesium 1.8 mEq/L, calcium 8.5 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Read food labels to determine sodium content. The nurse should assess the client's sodium level of 144 mEq/L, which is slightly above the normal range. High sodium intake can lead to fluid retention, hypertension, and other health issues. By reading food labels to determine sodium content, the nurse can identify sources of high sodium intake in the client's diet and provide appropriate dietary recommendations. This assessment is crucial in managing the client's sodium levels and overall health. Assessing the client's dietary intake of foods high in potassium (Choice A) is not the priority in this case since the client's potassium level is within the normal range. Assessing the client's neuromuscular status (Choice B) is important but not the first priority when considering the electrolyte imbalances present. Assessing the client's fluid intake and output (Choice C) is also important but does not address the immediate concern related to the client's elevated sodium level.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is having a subclavian central venous catheter inserted. The client begins to report chest pain and difficulty breathing. After administering oxygen, which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. Chest pain and difficulty breathing after subclavian central venous catheter insertion could indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication. Chest tube insertion is indicated to help re-expand the lung and relieve the pressure in the thoracic cavity. This intervention takes priority over the other options because it addresses the potential life-threatening complication of a pneumothorax. Administering nitroglycerin (choice A) is not indicated for chest pain in this scenario. Placing a sterile dressing over the IV site (choice C) is not appropriate for managing chest pain and difficulty breathing. Re-positioning the client into the Trendelenburg position (choice D) is not effective in addressing a pneumothorax and may worsen the client's condition.
Question 8 of 9
A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that do not apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased conservation of sodium. Older adults tend to have an increased conservation of sodium, leading to fluid retention and decreased fluid intake, which can contribute to dehydration. A: Decreased kidney mass is incorrect because it is a factor that can contribute to decreased kidney function but not directly linked to dehydration. B: Decreased renal blood flow can impact kidney function but is not a direct cause of dehydration in older adults. C: Decreased excretion of potassium is not a factor that directly contributes to dehydration in older adults.
Question 9 of 9
While assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit, which client is at risk for hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning. Pancreatitis can lead to gastrointestinal losses of potassium, and continuous nasogastric suctioning can further exacerbate this potassium loss, putting the client at risk for hypokalemia. The other choices are incorrect because: B: ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. C: Blood transfusions can lead to hyperkalemia due to the potassium content in blood products. D: Uncontrolled diabetes and a serum pH level of 7.33 are not directly associated with hypokalemia.