ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative. Palliative surgery is aimed at relieving symptoms and improving quality of life when a cure is not possible. In this scenario, where the cancer has recurred and metastasized, the goal of surgery would be to alleviate symptoms rather than to cure the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because reconstructive surgery aims to restore function or appearance, salvage surgery aims to remove or salvage tissue to prevent further complications, and prophylactic surgery aims to prevent the development of a condition rather than treat its progression.
Question 2 of 9
An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction can lead to the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream, causing hypercalcemia. This imbalance is commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma. Choice B, Hyperproteinemia, is not typically associated with bone destruction in multiple myeloma. Choice C, Elevated serum viscosity, and Choice D, Elevated RBC count, are not directly related to the bone destruction seen in multiple myeloma.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Patients who have undergone radiation therapy are at risk for impaired wound healing due to tissue damage. While cognitive deficits, cardiac tamponade, and tumor lysis syndrome can be concerns for oncology patients, the immediate priority following radiation therapy is assessing for impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery.
Question 4 of 9
Gastric cancer is known to have numerous risk factors. Which of the following is not a risk factor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A diet high in fiber is not a risk factor for gastric cancer; in fact, it is generally considered protective against cancers. High sodium intake (Choice A) has been associated with an increased risk of gastric cancer. Diets with high amounts of chili garlic (Choice B) may irritate the stomach lining, potentially contributing to the development of gastric cancer. Smoking (Choice C) is a well-established risk factor for various types of cancers, including gastric cancer.
Question 5 of 9
A client is receiving rituximab. What assessment by the nurse takes priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving rituximab, the nurse's priority assessment should be monitoring the blood pressure. Rituximab can lead to infusion-related reactions, such as hypotension. Therefore, assessing the client's blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage any potential adverse reactions promptly. While monitoring temperature, oral mucous membranes, and pain are essential aspects of care, they are not the priority when a client is receiving rituximab.
Question 6 of 9
Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
Question 7 of 9
A client in the emergency department reports difficulty breathing. The nurse assesses the client's appearance as depicted below: What action by the nurse is most important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. Difficulty breathing can be a sign of various conditions, including cardiac issues. Assessing blood pressure and pulse helps in determining the client's hemodynamic status and identifying any cardiovascular compromise. Option B is less crucial as attaching the client to a pulse oximeter may provide oxygen saturation levels but does not directly assess cardiac output. Option C is not the priority in this situation as the client's difficulty breathing is a more urgent concern. Option D is incorrect as urgent radiation therapy is not indicated based on the client's presentation.
Question 8 of 9
During a health promotion program on testicular cancer, a community health nurse finds that more information is necessary if a community member says which of the following is a sign of testicular cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Alopecia.' Alopecia is not a sign of testicular cancer; it can occur due to chemotherapy. Back pain (choice B) is not typically associated with testicular cancer. Painless testicular swelling (choice C) and a heavy sensation in the scrotum (choice D) can be actual signs of testicular cancer, so they do not require further information.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.