ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
You are caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with genital herpes. When preparing a teaching plan for this patient, what general guidelines should be taught?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because thorough handwashing is essential in preventing the spread of genital herpes. This helps reduce the risk of transmission to other parts of the body or to other individuals. Sunbathing (B) does not eradicate the virus and can actually worsen symptoms. Massaging lesions with ointment (C) can aggravate the sores and lead to further infection. Self-infection (D) can occur from touching lesions during a breakout due to the highly contagious nature of the virus. Therefore, teaching the patient about thorough handwashing is crucial in managing and preventing the spread of genital herpes.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma. After instilling the patients first medication, how long should the nurse wait before instilling the patients second medication into the same eye?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3 minutes. After administering the first eye drop, waiting for 3 minutes before instilling the second medication allows for proper absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This interval prevents dilution or interaction between the medications. Option A (30 seconds) is too short, not allowing sufficient time for absorption. Option B (1 minute) is also inadequate for proper absorption. Option D (5 minutes) is unnecessarily long and may lead to patient discomfort or inconvenience.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired nutritional status. Radiation therapy to the neck can lead to mucositis, dysphagia, and taste changes, which can impair the patient's ability to eat and maintain adequate nutrition. This can lead to weight loss, weakness, and delayed wound healing. Discussing this potential adverse effect with the patient is crucial for proactive management. Choice B: Cognitive changes, and Choice C: Diarrhea are less likely to be direct adverse effects of radiation therapy to the neck. Cognitive changes are more commonly associated with brain radiation, while diarrhea is a more common side effect of abdominal radiation. Choice D: Alopecia is a side effect of chemotherapy, not radiation therapy. Radiation therapy does not typically cause hair loss unless it is in the treatment field. Therefore, discussing alopecia with the patient receiving radiation for a malignant neck tumor is not a priority.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is scheduled to have an electronystagmography as part of a diagnostic workup for Mnires disease. What question is it most important for the nurse to ask the patient in preparation for this test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have you ever experienced claustrophobia or feelings of anxiety while in enclosed spaces? This question is important because electronystagmography involves the patient being placed in a confined space with sensors attached to monitor eye movements. Claustrophobia or anxiety can significantly impact the patient's ability to tolerate the test, affecting its accuracy. Choice B: Do you currently take any tranquilizers or stimulants on a regular basis? While relevant in some cases, it is not as crucial as ensuring the patient can tolerate the test environment. Choice C: Do you have a history of falls or problems with loss of balance? While relevant to Mnire's disease, it is not directly related to the preparation for electronystagmography. Choice D: Do you have a history of either high or low blood pressure? While monitoring blood pressure is important for some procedures, it is not a primary concern for electronystagmography.
Question 5 of 9
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy” abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's symptoms of crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage with odor, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, low blood pressure, and irregular pulse suggest an infection. The history of recent miscarriage raises suspicion for retained products of conception leading to infection. Ectopic pregnancy (choice A) would present with different symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (choice C) typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and high levels of hCG. Endometriosis (choice D) is a chronic condition and not related to the acute symptoms described. In summary, the clinical presentation aligns with uterine infection given the patient's history, symptoms, and vital signs.
Question 6 of 9
In general, when a patient’s energy requirements are completely met by kilocalorie (kcal) intake in food, which assessment finding will the nurse observe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight does not change. When a patient's energy requirements are completely met by kcal intake, their weight should remain stable as there is a balance between energy intake and expenditure. This indicates that the body is receiving adequate energy for its needs, leading to weight maintenance. A: Weight increases - This would indicate an excess of energy intake over expenditure, leading to weight gain. B: Weight decreases - This would indicate a deficit in energy intake compared to expenditure, resulting in weight loss. D: Weight fluctuates daily - Daily weight fluctuations are normal and can be influenced by factors like hydration levels, food intake, and exercise, but a stable weight over time indicates a balance between energy intake and expenditure.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acyclovir (Zovirax). Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes infections, including genital herpes. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby suppressing symptoms and shortening the course of the infection. Clotrimazole (A) is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, not effective against viral infections like herpes. Metronidazole (B) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not effective against viruses. Podophyllin (C) is a topical treatment for genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), not effective for herpes. Therefore, the correct choice is Acyclovir (D) for treating genital herpes exacerbation.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinsons disease several months ago recently began treatment with levodopa-carbidopa. The patient and his family are excited that he has experienced significant symptom relief. The nurse should be aware of what implication of the patients medication regimen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient is in a honeymoon period when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident. This is because the initial response to levodopa-carbidopa in Parkinson's disease can be very positive, leading to significant symptom relief. However, over time, as the disease progresses and the body adjusts to the medication, adverse effects such as dyskinesias may become more prominent. Choice B is incorrect because the benefits of levodopa-carbidopa can be seen relatively soon after initiation of treatment and do not necessarily take 6 to 9 months to peak. Choice C is incorrect as the temporary improvement is likely related to the medication, given the significant symptom relief experienced. Choice D is incorrect because while benefits may diminish over time, it is not necessarily after 1 or 2 years of treatment, and some patients may continue to benefit from the medication long-term.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with HIV infection has begun experiencing severe diarrhea. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help alleviate the diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increase the patient's oral fluid intake. This is because severe diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can be dangerous for patients with HIV infection. By increasing oral fluid intake, the patient can stay hydrated and prevent further complications. Administering antidiarrheal medications on a scheduled basis (Choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the patient to eat balanced meals (Choice B) and increase activity level (Choice D) may be important for overall health but do not directly address the immediate concern of dehydration caused by severe diarrhea.