You are called to the scene where a 36-year-old male was shot in the back while running away from an assailant. While treating and attempting to stabilize the patient, what should be done with the clothing he was wearing?

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Question 1 of 5

You are called to the scene where a 36-year-old male was shot in the back while running away from an assailant. While treating and attempting to stabilize the patient, what should be done with the clothing he was wearing?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because placing the clothing in a paper bag with the disposable gloves helps preserve any potential evidence without contaminating it. Sealing the bag ensures the integrity of the evidence, and documenting all details on the bag maintains a clear chain of custody. This method follows proper forensic protocol for preserving evidence. Choice A is incorrect because simply laying the clothing to the side may lead to contamination and loss of evidence integrity. Choice B is incorrect as placing the clothing between the patient's legs on the stretcher risks contamination and may not preserve evidence properly. Choice C is incorrect because sealing the evidence bag is crucial to maintain integrity, and not sealing it could compromise the evidence.

Question 2 of 5

You are treating a 50-year-old male with a cardiac history currently complaining of chest pain. He is breathing at 20 times a minute, has an irregular heart rate of 136 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 120/60. His twelve-lead-tracing indicates the presence of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). What makes the ST-elevation infarction treatment different from a non-STEMI patient's treatment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), immediate reperfusion therapy is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and prevent irreversible damage to the heart muscle. Fibrinolytics can be used to achieve this goal, but the time from symptom onset to treatment initiation is critical. Time is muscle in STEMI, so early recognition, prompt activation of the cath lab, and rapid transfer to a PCI-capable hospital are essential. In contrast, non-ST elevation infarctions may not require immediate reperfusion therapy and may respond to medical management initially. Choice A is incorrect because the urgency of treatment is not as time-sensitive in non-STEMI. Choice C is incorrect because fluid bolus is not a standard treatment for STEMI, and choice D is incorrect because the management differs between STEMI and non-STEMI.

Question 3 of 5

An adult patient who experiences the loss of his/her gag reflex following a closed-head and suspected spinal injury may have suffered an injury to which of the following cranial nerves?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cranial nerve X (vagus). The vagus nerve is responsible for the gag reflex, which is a protective mechanism in response to stimuli in the back of the throat. In a closed-head and suspected spinal injury, damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex. Choice B: Cranial nerve III (oculomotor) is involved in eye movements. Choice C: Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) is responsible for tongue movement. Choice D: Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal) is related to taste sensation and swallowing.

Question 4 of 5

You are working a 55-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. When it comes time to push amiodarone for ventricular fibrillation, you note that your stock of the preferred medication has been depleted on a previous call. What medication can be safely used in place of amiodarone in this situation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: In the absence of amiodarone, lidocaine is the preferred alternative for ventricular fibrillation. Lidocaine is a Class Ib antiarrhythmic agent that can be used to stabilize cardiac rhythms in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, helping to restore a normal heart rhythm. Epinephrine (A) is primarily used for its effects on increasing heart rate and blood pressure during cardiac arrest. Cardizem (B) is a calcium channel blocker and not typically used for ventricular fibrillation. Procainamide (D) is a Class Ia antiarrhythmic drug that is less commonly used for ventricular arrhythmias and is not the preferred alternative in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following would be your most appropriate action after the administration of 1mg of atropine fails to increase the heart rate of your symptomatic bradycardic patient's heart rate and cardiac output?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Transcutaneous pacing (TCP) Rationale: 1. Atropine blocks parasympathetic response, so lack of heart rate increase indicates a severe bradycardia. 2. TCP provides immediate pacing to increase heart rate and cardiac output. 3. It is the most appropriate action when medications like atropine fail. 4. Synchronized cardioversion (choice B) is used for unstable tachyarrhythmias, not bradycardia. 5. Repeating atropine (choice C) may not be effective if the initial dose failed. 6. Epinephrine (choice D) is used in cardiac arrest, not as the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia.

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