ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry and rough. In hypothyroidism, there is reduced secretion of sweat and oils, leading to dry skin. The lack of hydration causes the skin to become rough. This correlates with the clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss, which are common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because moisture is reduced in hypothyroidism, resulting in dry skin. Choice C is incorrect because the lack of oils in hypothyroidism leads to rough skin texture, not smooth.
Question 2 of 9
Acute lymphocytic leukemia is usually diagnosed by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bone marrow examination. Acute lymphocytic leukemia is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow's ability to produce normal blood cells. A bone marrow examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis by analyzing the bone marrow cells for abnormality. A complete blood count (choice A) can show abnormalities in blood cell counts but cannot confirm leukemia. Magnetic resonance imaging (choice B) and nuclear bone scan (choice C) are imaging tests that can show bone abnormalities but are not specific for diagnosing leukemia.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with pain in the shoulder. The nurse practitioner knows that there are four rotator cuff muscles. The muscle that initiates abduction movement at the shoulder is known as the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Supraspinatus. This muscle is responsible for initiating abduction movement at the shoulder joint. It is located on the top of the shoulder blade and assists in lifting the arm away from the body. The other choices, B: Infraspinatus, C: Levator scapulae muscle, and D: Subscapularis, are not involved in initiating abduction movement at the shoulder. Infraspinatus is responsible for external rotation, Levator scapulae muscle elevates the scapula, and Subscapularis assists in internal rotation of the shoulder joint.
Question 4 of 9
You are palpating the apical impulse in a patient with heart disease and find that the amplitude is diffuse and increased. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause of an increase in the amplitude of the impulse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, cardiomyopathy. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle that can lead to an increase in the size and strength of the heart muscle, resulting in an increased amplitude of the apical impulse. This is due to the heart working harder to pump blood effectively. Hypothyroidism (choice A) typically does not cause an increase in the amplitude of the apical impulse. Aortic stenosis (choice B) and mitral stenosis (choice C) both result in pressure or volume overload on specific chambers of the heart, but they do not directly lead to diffuse and increased amplitude of the apical impulse like cardiomyopathy does. In summary, an increase in the amplitude of the apical impulse is more likely to be caused by cardiomyopathy due to the increased workload on the heart muscle, compared to the other conditions provided in the choices.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is true of a grade 4-intensity murmur?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is moderately loud. A grade 4-intensity murmur indicates a moderately loud murmur that is readily heard with the stethoscope lightly on the chest. This intensity suggests a significant level of turbulence in blood flow, typically indicating a more pronounced cardiac abnormality. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: It can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest - This is incorrect because a murmur would not be audible without the stethoscope. C: It can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest - This is incorrect as a murmur would still require direct contact with the chest for auscultation. D: It is associated with a "thrill" - This is incorrect as a thrill is a palpable vibration indicating turbulent blood flow and is not directly related to murmur intensity.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for an older adult who is having difficulty with swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide thickened liquids and soft foods. This intervention helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of food or liquids entering the airway. Thickened liquids are easier to control while swallowing, decreasing the chance of aspiration. Soft foods are also easier to chew and swallow, further reducing the risk. Choice A is incorrect because eating quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after meals can actually increase the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect as large meals can increase the likelihood of swallowing difficulties and aspiration.
Question 7 of 9
On examination of the neck, a dome-shaped lesion in the dermis forming a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis is noted on the right lateral side of the neck. The type of lesion is known as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the characteristics of the lesion described - dome-shaped, in dermis, benign, closed sac attached to epidermis. Step 2: A cutaneous cyst fits all these characteristics - it is a benign closed sac in the dermis with attachment to the epidermis. Step 3: Keloid (A) is an overgrowth of scar tissue, not a closed sac lesion. Tophi (B) are deposits of uric acid crystals, not a sac. Chondrodermatitis (D) is inflammation of cartilage and skin, not a closed sac lesion. Summary: A cutaneous cyst is the correct choice as it matches all the characteristics given, while the other options do not fit the description provided.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is true of the HPV vaccine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: It can protect against anogenital lesions. The HPV vaccine can protect against several types of HPV that are known to cause anogenital warts and lesions. This is based on scientific evidence from clinical trials. A: Ideally it should be administered within 3 years of first intercourse - This statement is not accurate. The HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26, regardless of sexual activity. B: It covers against almost every HPV type - This statement is incorrect. While the HPV vaccine covers the most common high-risk HPV types that cause cervical cancer, it does not cover against every HPV type. C: It can be used as adjuvant therapy in cervical cancer - This statement is incorrect. The HPV vaccine is primarily used as a preventive measure to reduce the risk of HPV infection and related health issues, not as a treatment for existing cervical cancer.
Question 9 of 9
During a clinical examination, you observe that a patient's ears are positioned significantly below the level of the lateral eye canthi. What might this indicate about the patient's head and neck anatomy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential congenital deformity. This observation suggests a condition called "low-set ears," which can be a sign of certain congenital anomalies affecting the development of the head and neck structures during fetal growth. It is important to investigate further to rule out any associated syndromes or genetic disorders. Choice A: Normal anatomical variation is incorrect because this positioning is not commonly considered a normal variation in the general population. Choice C: Increased risk of hearing loss is incorrect as the position of the ears alone does not directly correlate with hearing loss. Choice D: No clinical significance is incorrect because this observation warrants further evaluation to assess for potential underlying issues.