ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
You accidentally touch Claudia's eyelid during eye drop instillation causing her to blink. What should have you done to prevent this from occurring?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tilt back Claudia's head slightly would have been the correct action to prevent her from blinking during eye drop instillation. By tilting her head back, you create a more stable position for instilling the eye drops, reducing the likelihood of accidental contact with her eyelid. Additionally, tilting the head back slightly helps in making it easier for the drops to enter the eye and stay within the conjunctival sac, improving the efficacy of the medication.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by an imbalance between bone resorption and formation, resulting in bone thinning and increased risk of fractures?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by an imbalance between bone resorption (breakdown of bone tissue) and bone formation, leading to bone thinning and increased risk of fractures. In osteoporosis, bones become weak and porous, making them more prone to fractures even with minor trauma. This condition is common in postmenopausal women and older individuals. Risk factors for osteoporosis include age, gender, family history, lack of physical activity, low calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications. Treatment typically involves lifestyle modifications, including adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, weight-bearing exercises, and sometimes medication to help slow down bone loss and reduce fracture risk. Early detection and management of osteoporosis are crucial to prevent fractures and maintain bone health.
Question 3 of 9
This technique refers to the use of multiple referents to draw conclusions about what constitutes the truth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Triangulation is the technique that refers to the use of multiple referents to draw conclusions about what constitutes the truth. In the context provided in the question, Nurse Tarly is organizing a study to investigate the "Caring behavior of Staff-Nurses and Satisfaction of Women with Ostomy". By gathering data from various sources such as observation, interviews, and surveys, Nurse Tarly can triangulate the information to gain a comprehensive understanding of the situation. Triangulation helps to validate findings, enhance the credibility of the study, and provide a more well-rounded view of the issue at hand.
Question 4 of 9
A rape victim tells the emergency nurse, I feel so dirty. Help me take a shower before I get examined. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation would be to offer the victim a shower after evidence is collected. It is essential to preserve any physical evidence that may be present from the assault during the forensic examination. Allowing the victim to shower before evidence is collected could potentially compromise the evidence and hinder the investigation. The nurse should provide support to the victim during this difficult time and assure them that they will have the opportunity to shower once the necessary evidence is obtained. It is also crucial for the nurse to offer empathy and understanding while explaining the importance of preserving any evidence related to the assault.
Question 5 of 9
A patient in the intensive care unit (ICU) develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) characterized by hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a severe form of acute lung injury that is characterized by hypoxemia, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. When managing a patient with ARDS in the ICU, the priority intervention is to provide adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Mechanical ventilation is often necessary to support gas exchange in these patients.
Question 6 of 9
One of the patients is manifesting signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such as: tremors, diaphoresis, and hyperactivity. Blood pressure is 190/92 mm.Hg and pulse rate of 92 beats/min. Which of the following medications should you expect to be ordered for these patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as tremors, diaphoresis, hyperactivity, elevated blood pressure, and tachycardia. Lorazepam, which is a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms. It helps alleviate symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, tremors, and seizures by acting on the same brain receptors affected by alcohol. It has sedative, anxiolytic, and anticonvulsant properties which can help stabilize the patient and prevent potential complications of alcohol withdrawal, such as seizures. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication used for conditions like schizophrenia and acute psychosis; therefore, it would not be appropriate for alcohol withdrawal. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, and Benztropin is used to treat Parkinson's disease and extrapyramidal symptoms, so they are not indicated for alcohol
Question 7 of 9
The physician orders cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) for the client. The nurse instructs the client that the most effective administration schedule is ________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) is a mast cell stabilizer that is commonly used to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, such as sneezing, itching, and congestion. It works best when used before exposure to allergens. The most effective administration schedule for nasal crom is to start using it just after allergy symptoms begin, with a dose of twice-a-day. This helps to prevent the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances from mast cells, thereby reducing allergic symptoms. Using nasal crom in this way can help provide relief and improve the overall management of allergic rhinitis.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, a cherry-red spot at the macula, and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). CRAO occurs when the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the inner retinal layers, becomes occluded. The cherry-red spot is due to the exposure of the underlying choroid, which still appears red as it is not affected by the blockage. Attenuated retinal vessels and a pale retina may also be seen due to ischemia. In contrast, central retinal vein occlusion (choice B) presents with sudden painless vision loss, retinal hemorrhages, dilated retinal veins, and cotton-wool spots. Retinal detachment (choice C) typically presents with flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like shadow across the vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (
Question 9 of 9
In CO-PAR, which is the MOST important role of the public health nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of CO-PAR (Community Organizing Participatory Action Research), the most important role of the public health nurse is being an expert. Public health nurses are expected to have specialized knowledge and skills in the field of public health, allowing them to provide evidence-based guidance and interventions to support community health initiatives. As an expert, the public health nurse can assess community needs, develop appropriate interventions, educate community members on health promotion and disease prevention, and evaluate the effectiveness of implemented programs. By utilizing their expertise, public health nurses can effectively contribute to improving the health outcomes and well-being of the community they serve.