ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
With respect to tumor nomenclature, the AGACNP knows that the term carcinoma describes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The term "carcinoma" specifically refers to malignant neoplasms that arise from epithelial cells. Epithelial cells are the cells that line the internal and external surfaces of the body. Carcinomas account for the majority of all cancers and can occur in various organs such as the skin, lungs, breasts, colon, and prostate, among others. Carcinomas are characterized by their ability to invade surrounding tissues and potentially metastasize to distant sites in the body. Therefore, option D is the correct choice when describing what the term "carcinoma" signifies in tumor nomenclature.
Question 2 of 5
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anticholinergics are not typically used in the management of acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction. Anticholinergic medications may worsen tachycardia and exacerbate myocardial ischemia by increasing heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid using anticholinergics in this patient population.
Question 3 of 5
When a patient is hospitalized with a possible stroke, the AGACNP recognizes that the stroke most likely resulted from a subarachnoid hemorrhage when the patients family reports that the patient
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The key clinical manifestation indicating a possible subarachnoid hemorrhage in this scenario is that the patient had been complaining of a headache before losing consciousness. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a type of stroke that results from bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater surrounding the brain. Severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one's life, is a classic symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage. The sudden onset of a severe headache before loss of consciousness raises the suspicion for this type of stroke. Other symptoms such as mental confusion and weakness may also be present, but the headache is a crucial indicator in this case.
Question 4 of 5
The AGACNP is treating a patient with ascites. After a regimen of 200 mg of spironolactone daily, the patient demonstrates a weight loss of 0.75 kgday. The best approach to this patients management is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best approach to managing the patient with ascites who has responded to spironolactone with weight loss is to add a loop diuretic to the current regimen. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that primarily works on the distal convoluted tubule, while loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Combining these two diuretics can result in a synergistic effect, increasing diuresis and reducing fluid retention in patients with ascites. This combination therapy is often used in patients who do not respond adequately to spironolactone alone, and it is considered a common strategy in the management of ascites due to cirrhosis. Therefore, adding a loop diuretic to the spironolactone regimen is the most appropriate next step to optimize diuresis and fluid management in this patient.
Question 5 of 5
Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient presents with a jagged laceration on his forearm that is still open and requires sutures. The appropriate management for this patient involves local anesthesia to reduce pain, thorough cleansing of the wound to prevent infection, and wound exploration to assess for any foreign bodies that may be present. Suturing the wound is necessary to promote proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Antibiotic therapy may be indicated if signs of infection are present, but it is not mentioned in the scenario as a primary management step. Tetanus prophylaxis should also be considered given the mechanism of injury involving a dirty object.