ATI RN
Quizlet ATI Pharmacology Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone is intermediate-acting (12-36 hours), not long-acting like dexamethasone, so that's false. Methotrexate benefits some prednisone-dependent asthmatics, not all studies, making that false. Cyclosporin's toxicity (e.g., nephrotoxicity) limits its anti-asthmatic use, a true statement, despite immunosuppressive potential. Nifedipine has minimal effect on exercise-induced bronchoconstriction, unlike inhaled CCBs, so that's false. Macrolides show some benefit in asthma. Cyclosporin's limitation reflects its risk-benefit profile, restricting its practical use.
Question 2 of 5
Drug X has a median lethal dose of 30 mg and a median effective dose of 10. Drug Y has a therapeutic index of 4, while drug Z has a therapeutic index of 3. Which statement is accurate based on this information?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic index (TI) = lethal dose (LD50) / effective dose (ED50). Drug X: 30/10 = 3. Drug Y: TI = 4. Drug Z: TI = 3. Higher TI means safer-Drug Y (4) tops X and Z (3), balancing efficacy and toxicity best. X and Y aren't both safer-X matches Z. X's TI isn't 20. Z isn't safest. Y's TI makes it safest.
Question 3 of 5
The mother of a 7-year-old child says to the nurse, 'My child is distractible in school, cannot complete assignments on time, and interrupts other children while they are speaking. What do you think?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is option C: "This could be attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); you might want to have your child tested." This is the best response because the symptoms described by the mother - distractibility, inability to complete tasks, and interrupting others - are common manifestations of ADHD in children. Suggesting testing for ADHD is appropriate as early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the child's academic and social outcomes. Option A is incorrect because depression typically presents differently in children, with symptoms like persistent sadness or irritability, changes in appetite or sleep, and loss of interest in activities they used to enjoy, which were not mentioned in the scenario. Option B is incorrect as bipolar disorder in children usually involves distinct periods of mania and depression, which were not described in the child's behavior. Option D is incorrect because while some behaviors can be typical for a 7-year-old, the combination of symptoms described by the mother could indicate an underlying issue like ADHD that may require further evaluation and support. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses to be able to recognize common childhood behavioral and mental health concerns to provide appropriate guidance to parents and ensure children receive timely interventions for optimal development and well-being. Understanding the nuances between different conditions and their presentations is essential for healthcare professionals working with children and families.
Question 4 of 5
A 60-year-old man with agitation is hospitalized on the medicine service for hyponatremia. He is being treated with intravenous fluids and haloperidol. He develops new onset of tremors and difficulty with ambulation and gait disturbance. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's new tremors, ambulation issues, and gait disturbance during hospitalization for hyponatremia suggest a drug-related cause. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, is known for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)-tremors, rigidity, and gait problems-making iatrogenic the correct answer. Infection lacks supporting fever or systemic signs. Neoplastic process is unlikely without prior hints. Viral encephalitis would involve fever, altered mentation beyond agitation, and CSF findings, none present. Haloperidol's dopamine D2 blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway induces EPS, especially in older patients, aligning with the timeline and symptoms. This iatrogenic effect is a common adverse reaction, distinguishing it from unrelated pathologies in this context.
Question 5 of 5
A 42-year-old female who is obese and with a history of gallstones and cholecystitis complains of superficial skin swelling and itching. Physical examination by the primary care physician reveals skin erythema, tenderness, and swelling consistent with cellulitis. The patient is given a prescription for erythromycin. Which of the following effects must the treating physician be keenly aware of?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Cholestatic jaundice. Erythromycin is known to cause cholestatic jaundice, a condition where bile flow from the liver to the small intestine is impaired, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. This adverse effect is particularly important to monitor in a patient with a history of gallstones and cholecystitis, as it can exacerbate existing liver issues. Option B) Mild abdominal discomfort is a common side effect of erythromycin but is not as critical or severe as cholestatic jaundice in this case. Option C) Nausea is another common side effect of erythromycin but does not pose the same level of risk as cholestatic jaundice. Option D) Tinnitus is not a known side effect of erythromycin and is unrelated to the patient's current symptoms. Educationally, understanding the adverse effects of medications is crucial for healthcare providers to ensure patient safety and provide appropriate care. It is essential to be aware of specific risks associated with certain medications, especially in patients with pre-existing conditions that may exacerbate these effects. Monitoring for and recognizing potential adverse drug reactions can help prevent further harm and optimize patient outcomes.