ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 1 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
With regard to non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pancuronium is primarily renally eliminated, a true statement, prolonged in kidney failure. Rocuronium, a steroidal agent, not isoquinolone (like atracurium), is false. Rocuronium is hepatically metabolized, not via Hofmann elimination (atracurium does), so that's false. Vecuronium is mostly biliary excreted, not renal, making that false. Atracurium uses plasma esterases and Hofmann elimination, not pseudocholinesterases alone. Pancuronium's renal clearance is critical for surgical planning, especially in renal patients.
Question 2 of 5
The patient and his wife receive the same medication for hypertension. The patient's wife asks the nurse why she is receiving a higher amount of the medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Individual variation-metabolism, weight, genetics-dictates dose differences, a pharmacokinetic truth explaining her higher amount. Female metabolism isn't universally higher. Hormones affect response, but not broadly dose. Body fat impacts distribution, not directly dose here. Uniqueness covers all factors, reassuring and accurate.
Question 3 of 5
Benzodiazepines are often the drug of choice for managing anxiety and insomnia. Which statement best explains why?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 39-year-old man with chronic allergic rhinitis and nasal congestion takes an over-the-counter nasal spray containing oxymetazoline. Over the next few days, he has significant improvement in his symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oxymetazoline treats nasal congestion in allergic rhinitis by acting as an α-adrenergic agonist. Option , increased nasal blood flow, is incorrect-vasoconstriction reduces flow. Option , increased arterial pressure, doesn't directly relieve congestion. Option , receptor stimulation on nasal vasculature, is correct-oxymetazoline stimulates α-receptors, causing vasoconstriction, shrinking swollen mucosa, and improving airflow. Option , transmembrane conductance change, is unrelated to its action. Option (E), understimulation, contradicts its agonist role. This vasoconstrictive effect rapidly alleviates congestion, explaining the symptom improvement. Unlike antihistamines or steroids, oxymetazoline targets vascular tone, not inflammation or histamine, making it ideal for quick relief in rhinitis. Prolonged use risks rebound congestion, but the question focuses on initial efficacy, where receptor-mediated vasoconstriction is key.
Question 5 of 5
A 34-year-old man with allergic rhinitis presents to his primary care physician for treatment. He is prescribed diphenhydramine and develops dry eyes and mouth within 2 days. His symptoms of rhinitis are approximately 75% better. He calls his physician asking what he should do. The most appropriate management for this patient is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.