ATI RN
Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
With auscultation she has distant air sounds and she has late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes. On cardiac examination the S and S are distant and an S is heard over the apex. 1 2 3 What disorder of the chest best describes her symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The given symptoms of distant air sounds, late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes, distant S1 and S2 heart sounds, and an S3 heart sound heard over the apex are all characteristic findings of left-sided heart failure. Distant air sounds and late inspiratory crackles indicate pulmonary congestion due to fluid accumulation in the lungs as a result of left-sided heart failure. The distant heart sounds and presence of an S3 are signs of left ventricular dysfunction. In contrast, pneumonia would typically present with more localized abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms such as fever and productive cough. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) would manifest with prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing, not late inspiratory crackles. Pleural pain is typically associated with sharp chest pain exacerbated by breathing movements, and it does not explain the constellation of symptoms described in this case. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis based on the provided symptoms
Question 2 of 9
With auscultation she has distant air sounds and she has late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes. On cardiac examination the S and S are distant and an S is heard over the apex. 1 2 3 What disorder of the chest best describes her symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The given symptoms of distant air sounds, late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes, distant S1 and S2 heart sounds, and an S3 heart sound heard over the apex are all characteristic findings of left-sided heart failure. Distant air sounds and late inspiratory crackles indicate pulmonary congestion due to fluid accumulation in the lungs as a result of left-sided heart failure. The distant heart sounds and presence of an S3 are signs of left ventricular dysfunction. In contrast, pneumonia would typically present with more localized abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms such as fever and productive cough. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) would manifest with prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing, not late inspiratory crackles. Pleural pain is typically associated with sharp chest pain exacerbated by breathing movements, and it does not explain the constellation of symptoms described in this case. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis based on the provided symptoms
Question 3 of 9
The following information is recorded in the health history: "The patient completed 8th grade. He currently lives with his wife and two children. He works on old cars on the weekend. He works in a glass factory during the week." Which category does it belong to?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The information provided pertains to the patient's educational background, living situation, family status, and work activities. This type of information falls under the personal and social history category, as it provides important context about the patient's lifestyle, living conditions, and social support network. Personal and social history is essential for understanding the patient's overall well-being and can impact their health and healthcare needs.
Question 4 of 9
When you enter your patient's examination room, his wife is waiting there with him. Which of the following is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate action in this situation is to ask the patient if it's okay to carry out the visit with both people in the room. This shows respect for the patient's autonomy and privacy. Some patients may feel more comfortable discussing personal information without a family member present, while others may prefer having their spouse or family member involved in the conversation. By asking for the patient's preference, you are ensuring that they have the opportunity to control who is present during the consultation and are upholding their right to confidentiality.
Question 5 of 9
A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of elevated JVP?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Constrictive pericarditis is a condition where the pericardium becomes thickened and rigid, impairing diastolic filling of the heart. This leads to an increase in venous pressure, including the jugular venous pressure (JVP). The elevated JVP in constrictive pericarditis is a result of impaired ventricular filling rather than forward failure seen in heart failure. Mitral stenosis can lead to an increased JVP due to elevated left atrial pressure, but constrictive pericarditis is a more common cause of elevated JVP in this scenario. Aortic aneurysm is not typically associated with elevated JVP.
Question 6 of 9
Frank is a 24-year-old man who presents with multiple burning erosions on the shaft of his penis and some tender inguinal adenopathy. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of multiple burning erosions on the shaft of the penis along with tender inguinal adenopathy is indicative of genital herpes caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). Primary herpes simplex infection typically presents with painful ulcers and lymphadenopathy. The ulcers are often shallow with well-defined borders and can be associated with systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise. In contrast, primary syphilis is characterized by a painless chancre at the site of infection, usually on the genitals. Chancroid can also present with painful ulcers, but it is less common in developed countries. Gonorrhea typically presents with urethral discharge, dysuria, or other symptoms of urethritis, rather than erosions on the penis shaft.
Question 7 of 9
You are a student in the vascular surgery clinic. You are asked to perform a physical examination on a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs. Which of the following aspects is important to note when you perform your examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When examining a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs, it is important to note the size, symmetry, and skin color of the lower extremities. These aspects can provide valuable information about the circulation and potential complications related to the disease. Changes in size, such as muscle wasting or atrophy, can indicate poor circulation and muscle ischemia. Asymmetry between the two legs may point to a significant difference in blood supply to the limbs. Skin color changes, such as pallor or cyanosis, can suggest impaired blood flow. Monitoring and documenting these findings are crucial for assessing the progression or improvement of the disease and guiding treatment interventions.
Question 8 of 9
On visualization of the penis he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup. What is the most likely diagnosis for this young man's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of severe testicular pain with a red, tense scrotum, and absent cremasteric reflex on one side is highly concerning for testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle. The affected testicle can become ischemic and necrotic within hours, necessitating prompt diagnosis and intervention to avoid permanent damage or loss of the testicle.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is true of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: HPV (human papillomavirus) infection is a very common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can affect both men and women. It is the most common STI in the United States. While most cases of HPV infection are asymptomatic and resolve on their own, certain high-risk strains of HPV can lead to the development of various cancers, including cervical cancer. Therefore, HPV infections do cause a small but important number of cervical cancers, making option D the correct choice. Regular screening, such as Pap smears and HPV testing, are crucial for early detection and effective management of HPV-related abnormalities that could progress to cervical cancer.