ATI RN
Behavioral Theory of Mental Health Questions
Question 1 of 5
Wilfredo with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse Patricia position the client for this test initially?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lying on the left side with knees bent. This position allows for optimal visualization of the colon during a colonoscopy. By lying on the left side, the sigmoid colon falls naturally forward, making it easier to navigate the scope. The knees bent position also helps to relax the abdominal muscles and reduce discomfort for the client. Incorrect choices: A: Lying on the right side with legs straight would not provide the same optimal visualization of the colon as lying on the left side. C: Prone with the torso elevated is not the appropriate position for a colonoscopy as it does not facilitate the procedure. D: Bent over with hands touching the floor is an incorrect position for a colonoscopy as it does not allow for proper insertion and navigation of the scope through the colon.
Question 2 of 5
Arnold, a 19-year-old client with a mild concussion is discharged from the emergency department. Before discharge, he complains of a headache. When offered acetaminophen, his mother tells the nurse the headache is severe and she would like her son to have something stronger. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: "Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worsening condition." Rationale: 1. Narcotics can mask symptoms of a worsening condition, such as increased intracranial pressure, by providing pain relief without addressing the underlying issue. This can delay appropriate medical intervention. 2. Acetaminophen is a suitable option for mild headaches and poses a lower risk of masking symptoms compared to narcotics. 3. Aspirin (option B) is contraindicated due to the risk of Reye's syndrome in young adults with viral illnesses. 4. Option D is incorrect as vomiting itself does not necessarily lead to increased intracranial pressure; strong medications may have various side effects, but the primary concern is the potential for masking symptoms with narcotics in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A 66-year-old client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse would suspect which of the following disorders?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperparathyroidism. The symptoms described are indicative of hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by increased levels of parathyroid hormone leading to high calcium levels in the blood. The symptoms such as bone pain, weakness, irritability, and depression are associated with hypercalcemia. The other choices (A: Diabetes mellitus, B: Diabetes insipidus, C: Hypoparathyroidism) are not consistent with the symptoms described in the scenario and would not typically present with bone pain, weakness, and irritability due to high calcium levels.
Question 4 of 5
Patrick is treated in the emergency department for a Colles' fracture sustained during a fall. What is a Colles' fracture?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fracture of the distal radius. A Colles' fracture specifically refers to a fracture of the distal end of the radius bone in the forearm, typically occurring due to a fall on an outstretched hand. This type of fracture is characterized by a specific anatomical location and mechanism of injury. The other choices, B: Fracture of the olecranon, C: Fracture of the humerus, and D: Fracture of the carpal scaphoid, do not correspond to a Colles' fracture based on the specific location and characteristics of this type of injury.
Question 5 of 5
After a motor vehicle accident, Armand an 22-year-old client is admitted with a pneumothorax. The surgeon inserts a chest tube and attaches it to a chest drainage system. Bubbling soon appears in the water seal chamber. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the bubbling?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Air leak. Bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates air is escaping from the pleural space through the chest tube, confirming the presence of an air leak. This is a common complication after chest tube insertion for pneumothorax. Adequate suction (choice B) would not cause bubbling in the water seal chamber. Inadequate suction (choice C) would result in no bubbling or fluctuation of the water in the water seal chamber. A kinked chest tube (choice D) would obstruct the drainage but not cause bubbling in the water seal chamber.