ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Why should the nurse wake up a client who is to undergo an EEG at midnight?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because optimum sleep helps regulate breathing patterns during an EEG. Waking the client at midnight allows them to have a full night's rest, ensuring they are well-rested and their breathing is stable for accurate EEG results. Choice A is incorrect as excess sleep does not affect nervousness. Choice C is incorrect as waking the client does not help them fall asleep naturally during the EEG. Choice D is incorrect as headache prevention is not directly related to waking the client at midnight.
Question 2 of 5
Mr. RR is being prepared for surgery. Nursing care would include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Assessment of neurologic signs establishes baseline for post-op care. 2. Helps detect any changes post-surgery. 3. Enables prompt intervention if any issues arise. 4. Planning activities (B) is not a priority pre-surgery. 5. Enema (C) may not be necessary for all surgeries. 6. Explaining complications (D) is important but not a primary pre-op nursing care.
Question 3 of 5
In planning safe care for the older adult, which of the ff. conditions does the nurse recognize would not cause visual problems?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Arcus senilis. This condition does not cause visual problems in the older adult. Arcus senilis is a grayish-white ring around the cornea, which does not affect vision. Glaucoma, macular degeneration, and cataracts are conditions that can lead to visual impairment in older adults. Glaucoma is characterized by increased pressure in the eye, which can damage the optic nerve and lead to vision loss. Macular degeneration affects the central part of the retina, leading to blurred or distorted vision. Cataracts cause clouding of the lens, resulting in decreased vision. Therefore, Arcus senilis is the correct choice as it does not cause visual problems compared to the other conditions listed.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following types of hearing loss does the nurse understand is most improved with the use of a hearing aid?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sensorineural hearing loss. Hearing aids are most effective for sensorineural hearing loss as they amplify sound signals to compensate for damage to the inner ear hair cells or auditory nerve. This type of hearing loss is due to problems in the inner ear or auditory nerve, which can be partially compensated for by using hearing aids. The other choices, A: Conductive, B: Mixed, and D: Central, are not as effectively improved by hearing aids. Conductive hearing loss is usually due to problems in the outer or middle ear, which can often be treated with medical or surgical interventions. Mixed hearing loss involves a combination of conductive and sensorineural components, and may require a combination of interventions. Central hearing loss is due to problems in the central auditory pathways in the brain, and is not typically improved by hearing aids.
Question 5 of 5
A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, reflecting long-term glycemic control. It is a more reliable indicator compared to other options. A: Urine glucose level only shows current glucose levels and is not a reliable indicator of long-term control. B: Serum fructosamine level reflects blood glucose control over the past 2-3 weeks, not the 3-month period the client has been making efforts. C: Fasting blood glucose level gives a snapshot of the current glucose level, not long-term control like glycosylated hemoglobin does.