Why should the nurse monitor angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors cautiously in clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause vasodilation, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. In clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults, these medications may not be cleared from the body as efficiently, increasing the risk of hypotension. Monitoring is crucial to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: A sudden raise in BP is unlikely with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. C: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors do not affect body temperature. D: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors typically do not cause a sudden rise in pulse rate. In summary, monitoring for a potential drop in blood pressure is essential in vulnerable populations when using angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 and 5. Diminished breath sounds indicate possible atelectasis or pneumonia post-operatively, making coughing and deep breathing (2) and ambulation (5) crucial to prevent complications. Decreasing fluid intake (iv) can lead to dehydration, worsening the situation. Administering antibiotics (i) without further assessment may not be necessary at this point. Acetaminophen (iii) can help with fever but does not address the underlying respiratory issue.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. At 4:30 p.m., after taking the morning insulin, the client's blood sugar may have dropped too low, leading to symptoms like headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. Regular insulin and NPH insulin peak at different times, causing a potential mismatch in insulin action, leading to hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia (A) would present with different symptoms like increased thirst and urination. Hyperuricemia (B) is an excess of uric acid in the blood and does not typically present with these symptoms. Hypochondria (D) is a psychological condition and not related to the client's physical symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. Severe diarrhea can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including low calcium levels. Decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Calcium is essential for proper muscle function and nerve transmission. Hypernatremia (A) is high sodium levels, not related to decreased muscle tone. Hyperchloremia (B) is high chloride levels, not associated with muscle tone changes. Hypokalemia (C) is low potassium levels, which can cause muscle weakness but not specifically decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes like hypocalcemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it includes essential nursing interventions for a patient with head injuries like J.E. Skin care and position changes every 2 hours help prevent pressure ulcers. Maintaining alignment of extremities prevents contractures. Respiratory exercises aid in lung function. Option B lacks the crucial aspect of maintaining extremity alignment. Option C includes teaching the use of an overhead trapeze, which may not be appropriate for J.E. Option D lacks the instruction to maintain extremity alignment, which is crucial for preventing contractures in patients with head injuries.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it follows the SMART approach: Specific (monitor heart rhythm), Measurable (continuously this shift), Achievable (feed self at all mealtimes), Relevant (shortness of breath), and Time-bound (today). Choice A lacks specificity and measurability. Choice C focuses on the nurse's action, not patient outcomes. Choice D lacks specificity and measurability, focusing on the nurse's actions rather than patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care. Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. A balanced and varied diet provides essential nutrients for immune function. 2. Including a wide range of foods ensures intake of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants crucial for immune health. 3. Avoiding extremes like excessive immune-enhancing formulas or eliminating polyunsaturated fatty acids maintains balance. 4. Essential fatty acids and omega-3 fatty acids are beneficial but should be part of a well-rounded diet. 5. For clients with immune-mediated disorders, individualized dietary advice may be necessary. Summary: - A: Immune-enhancing formulas may not be necessary and could disrupt balance. - B: Avoiding all polyunsaturated fatty acids is not advisable as some are essential for health. - C: Increasing essential fatty acids is beneficial but should be part of a balanced diet.