ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Why should the nurse closely monitor older adults when they are receiving IV therapy? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided in the choices. However, if I were to choose from the given options, the most appropriate would be C: "Because they are prone to reduced renal efficiency." This is important because older adults may have decreased kidney function, leading to potential complications with IV therapy. Option A is incorrect as defense mechanisms are not directly related to monitoring IV therapy. Option B is incorrect as fluid overload is a general concern with IV therapy regardless of age. Option D is irrelevant to the need for monitoring IV therapy in older adults.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the ff. positions is best for a chest drainage system when the patient is being transported by wheelchair?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hanging the chest drainage system on the top of the wheelchair backrest ensures that the system remains upright and secured during transportation, reducing the risk of accidental disconnection or leakage. Placing it on the patient's feet (B), hanging it with the IV pole (C), or placing it in the patient's lap (D) can lead to potential complications such as pulling or kinking the drainage tubing, increasing the risk of infection or injury to the patient.
Question 3 of 5
Why are older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases susceptible to thrombophlebitis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV drugs and chemicals. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation, commonly caused by irritants like IV drugs. Impaired mobility (C) and compromised circulation (D) are risk factors for thrombophlebitis, but not specific to older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases. A is incorrect as not all choices apply in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav
Question 5 of 5
When assessing a client with autoimmune disorder, what signs should the nurse look for in the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hives or rashes. In autoimmune disorders, the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues, leading to various symptoms. Hives or rashes are common manifestations of autoimmune disorders due to the immune response affecting the skin. Other choices are incorrect because hypotension is not typically associated with autoimmune disorders, localized inflammation may be present but is not specific to autoimmune disorders, and cramping and vomiting are not primary signs of autoimmune disorders.